The question of whether a passage or prediction should be take literally or figurtively is a challenging one. AI: “Reading the Bible “literal or figurative” refers to how you interpret the words on the page. Literal means taking the text at face value, treating it as straightforward history or fact. Figurative means the text uses word pictures, symbols, or poetry to express a deeper spiritual truth.” This question is especially critical in the interpretation of Biblical prophecies about the future of Israel and the 2nd coming of Jesus. A friend suggested that I go through the Bible and show which passages are literal or figurative, so that is my goal.
The place to start is in the New Testament.
1) THE LUKE 21:22 RULE Luke 21:20 “But when you see Jerusalem surrounded by armies, then recognize that her desolation is near. 21 Then those who are in Judea must flee to the mountains, and those who are inside the city must leave, and those who are in the country must not enter the city; 22 because these are days of punishment, so that all things which have been written will be fulfilled. 34 Truly I say to you, this generation will not pass away until all things take place.” Jesus is predicting the destruction of Jerusalem and the temple that would happen in 70 AD. He said it would happen within the generation of those he was speaking to. The Greek word genea always means a period of about 40 years or the people living in a 40 year period (such as we use when we speak of the baby boomers or X or Z generation). Jesus is referring to all things that have been written in the Old Testament since the New Testament had not been written when He said that. This puts a cap on the time limit for fulfillment of all Old Testament predictions. All Old Testament predictions had to be fulfilled by 70 AD. This is a rule that must be followed in interpreting any OT prediction such as the 70th week of Daniel (Daiel 9:24-27). Many say that 70th week prediction is yet to be fulfilled. Jesus in Luke 21:22 said that it had to be fulfilled by 70 AD (which it was b/c the end of the 70th week was the destrution of Jerusalem: Daniel 9:26 the people of the prince who is to come will destroy the city and the sanctuary”). Also the end event of the 70th week was the abomination of desolation of the temple. Jesus said that the events he predicted in Matthew 24 would be the fulfillment of Daniel’s prediction of the abomination of desolation. Matthew 24:15 “Therefore when you see the abomination of desolation which was spoken of through Daniel the prophet, standing in the holy place—let the reader understand.” He then added that this Daniel abomination of desolation had to happen within that generation he was speaking to. Matthew 24:34 Truly I say to you, this generation will not pass away until all things take place.” Other OT prophecies predicted that Israel would in the future return to live in the Promised Land. Many say that happened in 1948 when Israel was granted statehood in Palestine and given a sigificant portion of the land of Israel by the United Nations. But Jesus said that prophecy had to be fulfilled by 70 AD. So that prediction cannot refer to 1948. You can see how this Luke 21:22 rule given by Jesus can really help determine if an OT predicton is to be taken literally or figuratively.
2) NEW TESTAMENT TIME STATEMENTS In the New Testament, some of the time statements on predictions help determine literal or figurative. For example: Matthew 24:29 “But immediately after the tribulation of those days the sun will be darkened, and the moon will not give its light, and the stars will fall from the sky, and the powers of the heavens will be shaken. 30 And then the sign of the Son of Man will appear in the sky, and then all the tribes of the earth will mourn, and they will see the Son of Man coming on the clouds of the sky with power and great glory. 34 Truly I say to you, this generation will not pass away until all these things take place.” Again, this a parallel to Luke 21 predicting the destructio of Jerusalem in 70 AD. That stars falling from the sky would have to happen within that generation, within the next 40 years. If this is to be taken literally, then Jesus is a false prophet b/c the stars did not literally fall within that generation. But could the passage be interpreted figuratively? Yes. The OT has many such predictions associated with the destruction of nations. Isaiah 13:1 The pronouncement concerning Babylon which Isaiah the son of Amoz saw. 9 Behold, the day of the Lord is coming, cruel, with fury and burning anger, to make the land a desolation; and He will exterminate its sinners from it. 10 For the stars of heaven and their constellations will not flash their light; The sun will be dark when it rises and the moon will not shed its light.” Isaiah was predicting the destruction of Babylon by the Assyrians in 612 BC. Is he predicting that in 612 BC the stars literally would quit shining and the sun would literally quit giving off light? If so then Isaiah was a false prophet b/c that did not happen in 612 BC. But such language is typical of predictions of the destruction of nations. So it is not surprising that Jesus predicted that the stars would fall by 70 AD. That had to be figurative languge. So what did that mean if it is figurative? AI: “In Old Testament prophecy, cosmic disturbances (darkening of the sun and moon, stars falling) are frequently used as apocalyptic language to describe the collapse of governments, empires, and earthly leaders. Just as the sun and moon provide, “light” and order, rulers and religious authorities provide societal stability. Stars “falling” often symbolize the downfall of kings, political powers, or covenant-breaking nations.” The book of Revelation predicts stars falling several times: Revelation 6:13; 8:10-11; 12:4. Many take that to be some event that has not happened yet and that will happen literally at the 2nd coming in our future. The book of Revelation was about events to happen “soon” after the time of writing. The book was written during the reign of the 6th emperor of Rome (Revelation 17:10 and they are seven kings; five have fallen (the first 5 emperors of Rome beginning with Julius Caesar had already died at the time of writing), one is (i.e. the emperor reigning at the time of writing: the 6th emperor Nero was reigning at the time of writing). Nero reigned from 54-68 AD so the book had to be written before 68 AD (probably around 63 AD). The theme of the book is the avenging of the blood of the apostles, prophets and Jewish saints (Christians) that was shed by the evil Jewish nation (Revelation 18:20 Rejoice over her, O heaven, and you saints and apostles and prophets, because God has pronounced judgment for you against her (i.e. the spiritual prostitute Jerusalem in chapter 17).” The book is about the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD which would be “soon” after the time of writing. That prediction of the stars falling iin Revelation would have to be figurative as in Matthew 24 or else the apostle John was a false prophet. Bottom line, you can see how some of the time statements in NT predictions help determine literal or figurtive. BTW, these time statements would negte the teaching of some that Matthew 24 had a dual fulfillment: originally in 70 AD and then that event was a type of a final coming of Jesus in our future. Any fulfillment of Matthew 24 had to be within that generation.
3) THE IMMINENT 2ND COMING PREDICTED BY JESUS Another critical consideration in literal or figurative is understanding the time of the 2nd coming of Jesus. Jesus predicted a 2nd coming only 4 times in the synoptics: Matthew 10:23; 16:27-28; 24:29-34; 26:64. All 4 times he predicted his 2nd coming to be within the lifetime of his listeners. Matthew 16:27 even uses the word mello in that prediction: Matthew 16 27 `For, the Son of Man is about to (mello) come in the glory of his Father, with his messengers, and then he will reward each, according to his work.” (Young’s Literal Translation) The Greek word mello when used in the NT always refers to something that is “about to happen”, either about to happen in time or about to be at a location. Jesus even added: Matthew 26:28 Verily I say to you, there are certain of those standing here who shall not taste of death till they may see the Son of Man coming in his reign.” That’s pretty plain. If here were not some still living when he returned then he is a false prophet! Or that there are some 2,000 year old people still alive today. In all 4 of those predictions Jesus said that his return (or 2nd coming) would be within the lifetime of those he was speaking to. He is a false prophet if he did not return within that generation (Matthew 24:34) as he predicted, which is exactly what the atheists, Jews, and Muslims say that he was. But he did return in that generation in 70 AD in judgment on the Jews, using the Romans to destroy Jerusalem and the temple and kill over a million of the evil Jews (according to Josephus). AD 70 was the 2nd coming of Jesus. There are no other predictions of a return or coming back that would not be within that generation. None. If the 2nd coming is still in our future, don’t you think there would be some verses in the synoptics where Jesus predicted that? Many say, “Yes he predicted an imminent 2nd coming, but he delayed it.” That would be a delay going on 2,000 years now! But nowhere in the NT is there a delay of the 2nd coming. On the contrary: Hebrews 10:37 For yet in a very little while, He who is coming will come, and will not delay.” There is not scriptural basis whatsoever for saying that Jesus delayed his prediction of an imminent 2nd coming.
THE APOSTLES ALSO PREDICTED AN IMMINENT 2ND COMING The apostles also, based on Jesus’ teaching, taught an imminent 2nd coming. James 5:7 Therefore be patient, brothers and sisters, until the coming of the Lord. The farmer waits for the precious produce of the soil, being patient about it, until it gets the early and late rains. 8 You too be patient; strengthen your hearts, for the coming of the Lord is near.” Notice that this applied directly to those James wrote to. They were suffering at the hands of rich evil Jews and were told to be patient until the 2nd coming when they would get relief when a million evil Jews were killed in 70 AD. That coming, James said, was “near” at the time he wrote. 1 Peter 4:7 The end of all things is near.” The end of the physical earth was not near. Either Peter the apsostle was a false prophet or else he is referring to the end of the Jewish system and temple in 70 AD (which he was) in figurative language and not to the end of the world. 1 Corinthians 15:51 Behold, I am telling you a mystery; we will not all sleep, but we will all be changed, 52 in a moment, in the twinkling of an eye, at the last trumpet; for the trumpet will sound, and the dead will be raised imperishable, and we will be changed.” That chapter is about the resurrection. Paul is clearly sayiing that some of those he is writing to would still be alive (“not sleep) when the the righteous are given immortality, and that all the righteous, dead or alive, will be given that immortality. That could only be referring to Jesus’ 2nd coming when as Daniel 12:1-2 predicted, all the dead of the OT who were in hades waiting their final judgment would be raised, some to eternal life, some to eternal destruction. Paul later predicted in Acts 24:15 having hope toward God, which they themselves also wait for, [that] there is about to be (mello) a rising again of the dead, both of righteous and unrighteous.” (Young’s Literal Translation) I know that sounds heretical to say that the resurrection and 2nd coming happened in 70 AD, but examine all these passages before you charge heresy. It is interesting, however, that most Christians, even those that are not full preterists, believe that we go immediately to be with Jesus when we die, which I believe is true. That means that we can be with Jesus with a spiritual body without ever have our physical body raised from the grave. Why then would we need to ever have our physical body raised to be with Jesus in eternity? Of course, some say that at a future 2nd coming that our bodies will be raised from the grave and that we will be given some kind of eternal physical/spiritual body to live on earth. But if there is no future 2nd coming or resurrection, that that teaching is not Biblical. That also contradicts Paul’s teaching in 1 Corinthians 15 that the readers would be raised with an entirely spiritual not physical body. Finally Revelation predicts an imminent 2nd coming: Revelation 1:1,3 The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave Him to show to His bond-servants, the things which must soon take place…for the time is near. 7 Behold, He is coming with the clouds, and every eye will see Him, even those who pierced Him; and all the tribes of the earth will mourn over Him. 22:6 And he said to me, “These words are faithful and true”; and the Lord, the God of the spirits of the prophets, sent His angel to show His bond-servants the things which must soon take place. 7 “And behold, I am coming quickly. Blessed is the one who keeps the words of the prophecy of this book.” Again, this teaching (which is called “full preterism” and is considered heresy by many) is based on plain, simple interpretation of the words of Jesus and the apostles. To me, it is more heretical to teach that Jesus’ predictions of an imminent 2nd coming did not happen just as he predicted, thus making him a false prophet or just mistaken. C.S.Lewis came to that conclusion, that Jesus was just mistaken in Matthew 10:23.
ROMANS 11:16 SO ALL ISRAEL WILL BE SAVED. So what does that full preterist view of the 2nd coming in 70 AD mean for literal or figurative? If the 2nd coming, the resurrection, and the judgment all occurred in 70 AD (and they did), then that helps interpret eschatological predictions. For example, Romans 11:26 and so all Israel will be saved; just as it is written: “The Deliverer will come from Zion, He will remove ungodliness from Jacob.” 27 “This is My covenant with them, when I take away their sins.” That passage has caused a lot of debate on what “so all Israel will be saved” means. But notice that “all Israel will be saved” when the deliverer (i..e Jesus) comes from Zion, which refers to the 2nd coming. If so, whatever “all Israel will be saved” means had to happen by the 2nd coming. If full preterism is true, and I believe that it is, the 2nd coming was in 70 AD and all Israel had to be saved by 70 AD. Many say it means that at some future 2nd coming that the nation nof Israel will be saved in some way, but that doesn’t fit the timing that it had to happen by 70 AD. What does it mean? Without going into a long discussion or Romans 11, it means that by the 2nd coming in 70 AD all the elect, the Jewish remnant who would accept Jesus as the Messiah, would be gathered. The apostles would have preached the gospel to the entire Roman Empire by 70 AD, converting the elect. Some Jews early on believed in Jesus (3,000 in Acts) but most Jews rejected him. But Romans 11 predicts that some of those Jews who rejected him early on would become jealous of the Gentiles being saved and then would change their disbelief into belief in Jesus before 70 AD and the 2nd coming. Thus over the 40 year period from 30-70 AD the full remnant would be gathered. So “all Israel” in Romans 9:26 is somewhat figurative, referring to spiritual Israel, the elect, the Jewish remnant who believed in Jesus by 70 AD instead of a literal nation of Israel interpretation.
ROMANS 8:18-21 AN IMMINENT GLORIFICATION OF THE SONS OF GOD Similar to this is Romans 8:18 For I reckon that the sufferings of the present time [are] not worthy [to be compared] with the glory about to be (mello) revealed in us;19 for the earnest looking out of the creation doth expect the revelation of the sons of God; 20 for to vanity was the creation made subject — not of its will, but because of Him who did subject [it] — in hope, 21 that also the creation itself shall be set free from the servitude of the corruption to the liberty of the glory of the children of God.” (Young’s Literal Translation) This is a favorite passage of those who teach that at the 2nd coming the earth will be re-created or renewed into a Garden of Eden restoration. However, notice that whatever Paul is predicting was “about to be” (mello). If Paul is predicting an imminent re-creation of the earth then he was a false prophet b/c that did not happen soon after he wrote Romans. But that is not what he is predicting. He is predicting that at the 2nd coming in 70 AD which was “about to” happen that the true sons of God would be glorified (a constant theme in the NT). Probably they are the “creation” that would be set free from their spiritual corruption and given the liberty from the condemnation of sin. The physical earth being re-created is just not in that passage. So there is some figurative language here but the word mello helps us figure it out. As mentioned before, there are many other eschatological predictions associated with a supposedly still future 2nd coming: the return of Israel to their land, the end of the 70th week of Daniel 9, Gog and Magog invading Israel of Ezekiel 38-39, the battle of Armageddon of Revelation 20, the Great White Throne judgment of Revelation 20, the coming of some Antichrist, extreme natural disasters and celestial disturbances, etc. If the 2nd coming was in 70 AD and there is no”3rd coming” in our future then none of these things will happen in our future. They already happened!!!!!
1 AND 2 THESSALONIANS: THE 2ND COMING That brings us to another key eschatological prediction that is relevant to our literal or figurative discusison. 1 Thessalonians 4:13 But we do not want you to be uninformed, brothers and sisters, about those who are asleep, so that you will not grieve as indeed the rest of mankind do, who have no hope. 14 For if we believe that Jesus died and rose from the dead, so also God will bring with Him those who have fallen asleep through Jesus. 15 For we say this to you by the word of the Lord, that we who are alive and remain until the coming of the Lord will not precede those who have fallen asleep. 16 For the Lord Himself will descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel and with the trumpet of God, and the dead in Christ will rise first. 17 Then we who are alive, who remain, will be caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air, and so we will always be with the Lord. 18 Therefore, comfort one another with these words.” Is this a prediction of some kind of “rapture” of saints at the 2nd coming as many teach. To begin with, as many have noted, it looks as if Paul expects some of his readers to be alive at the 2nd coming (“that we who are alive and remain until the coming of the Lord “). If so, was Paul mistaken or a false prophet? Before discussing what this passage meant, we need to fast forward to Paul’s 2nd letter to the Thessalonians where he discussed in further detail the 2nd coming. Timothy had taken the 1 Thessalonians letter but returned telling Paul that there was confusing about the 2nd coming that he had mentioned in the first letter, some even saying that the 2nd coming had already happened (2 Thess 2:1-2). He said that the 2nd coming would give relief to the Jewish Christians who were suffering persecution from the Jewish non Christians: 2 Thess 1:6 For after all it is only right for God to repay with affliction those who afflict you, 7 and to give relief to you who are afflicted, along with us, when the Lord Jesus will be revealed from heaven with His mighty angels. This persecution was menetioned in the 1st letter: 1 Thess 2:14 For you, brothers and sisters, became imitators of the churches of God in Christ Jesus that are in Judea, for you also endured the same sufferings at the hands of your own countrymen, even as they did from the Jews, 15 who both killed the Lord Jesus and the prophets, and drove us out. They are not pleasing to God, but hostile to all people, 16 hindering us from speaking to the Gentiles so that they may be saved; with the result that they always reach the limit of their sins. But wrath has come upon them fully.” This promised relief from their suffering would be meaningless to them if the 2nd coming was not in their lifetime, but it would be of great comfort if the 2nd coming was in 70 AD when Jesus would use the Romans to kill one million of their Jewish enemies. Then in 2 Thess 2, Paul goes on to say that the 2nd coming would not occur until 2 events happened: the apostasy would come and the man of lawlessness who would sit in the temple of God claiming to be God would be revealed. He then says that something or someone is restraining the man of lawlessnes but that the “mystery of lawlessness is already at work” (2 Thess 2:7) wherein the restraint would be removed, allowing the man of lawlessness to be revealed doing his false signs and wonders. That in turn would precede the 2nd coming and destruction of the man of lawlessness (probably the destruction of the demonic power behind the man of lawlessness). But the key here is that “the mystery is already at work” at the time of writing (51 AD). The man of lawlessness would sit in the temple, so the temple had to be still standing when he arose (it would not be standing if the 2nd coming was after 70 AD). The man of lawlessnes was probably Titus who destroyed and desecrated the temple in 70 AD. Paul said that the man of lawlessness was living at the time he wrote the letter and that the 2nd coming would destroy that man in some way. All this means that Paul is saying that the 2nd coming would occur within the lifetime that he was writing the letter. That fits the full preterism view of the 2nd coming.
1 THESSALONIANS 4:13-18 But how does that help us interpret 1 Thessalonians 4:13-18 quoted above? If Paul clearly shows that the 2nd coming will be within their lifetime in 2 Thessalonians 2, which fits 70 AD, then surely 1 Thess 4:13-18 is referring to that same 2nd coming in 70 AD. After all, the 2nd letter is answering some of their confusion about the 1st letter. Most say 1 Thess 4 is predicting some kind of rapture of saints at the 2nd coming, but if the 2nd coming was in 70 AD, that did not happen and is not something that is going to happen in our future. But what does the passage mean if it was predicting something to happen in 70 AD? AI: “Many biblical theologians argue that the Apostle Paul intentionally structured this passage around the ancient Greco-Roman custom of an imperial adventus or parousia (a royal visit). In the ancient world, when a king, emperor, or high-ranking dignitary approached a city, the citizens would not just wait inside. Instead, they would march outside the city walls to meet (eis apantēsin) the dignitary. Once they met him, they would form an honor guard and joyfully escort him back into the city. Rather than the believers turning around and going back up to heaven with the King (the rapture idea), the royal protocol suggests they turn around and escort Him victoriously down to earth.” I think that explains how 1 Thess 4:13-18 is referring to the 2nd coming in 70 AD and how it is consistent with an AD 70 2nd coming in 2 Thessalonians 1-2. After all, the 2nd coming in 70 AD would usher in God and Jesus coming to earth to abide in God’s church. Revelation 21:2 And I saw the holy city, new Jerusalem, coming down out of heaven from God, prepared as a bride adorned for her husband. 3 And I heard a loud voice from the throne, saying, “Behold, the tabernacle of God is among the people, and He will dwell among them, and they shall be His people, and God Himself will be among them. John 14:3 And if I go and prepare a place for you, I am coming again and will take you to Myself, so that where I am, there you also will be. 23 Jesus answered and said to him, “If anyone loves Me, he will follow My word; and My Father will love him, and We will come to him and make Our dwelling with him.” Many think that John 14:2 “I am going there to prepare a place for you” refers to heaven, but the context shows that it is referring to the dwelling place of God and Jesus in believers here on earth, not in heaven. That indwellling of God in believers was finalized in 70 AD.
4) MESSIANIC PROPHECIES Another consideration deals specifically withe the many Messianic prophecies in the OT. There are two type of prophecy fulfillments. One is “predictive prophecy”, i.e predictions that predict one and only one event with only one fulfillment to be fulfilled by the Messiah. Micah 5:2 would be an example of that predicting that Jesus would be born in Bethlehem. That was used by Herod to ascertain where the new king of the Jews would be born. That prophecy had one and only one fulfillment. Many OT Messianic predictions are like that: the predictions about the death, burial and resurrection of Jesus in Isaiah 53, the predictions in Zechariah 9 and 12 about him riding into Jerusalem on a donkey and being pierced. These one time only fulfillments would be used to confirm that Jesus was the real Messiah and King of the Jews as predicted in the OT. These are what Paul used in Acts 17:1-3 in the synagogue to try to show the Jews that Jesus fulfilled all those predictions and was thus the Messiah. But even those predictions had some figurative language in them. For example, Ezekiel 34:23-24 predicted that in the Messianic Age God would place David as the shepherd of his flock. Ezekiel 37:24-25; Jeremiah 23:5-6 predicted that in the Messianic Age David would be king over Israel. But remember the Luke 21:22 rule: everything predicted in the OT had to be fulfilled by 70 AD. The unbelieving Jews still expect David to actually arise from the dead and be a shepherd and king of Israel some day, but it is pretty obvious that Jesus is the fulfillment of the Davidic predictions in Jeremiah and Ezekiel. So David is figurative for Jesus. Similar to that is Malachi 4:5 that Elijsh would come before the great and terrible day of the Lord (which was 70 AD). In Matthew 17 Jesus clearly said that the fulfillment of that prediction was in John the Baptist, so that is figurative language although unbelieving Jews still look for Elijah to arise from the dead and come sit at table with them during the Passover feast.
THE RETURN OF ISRAEL TO THEIR LAND Another such OT predictive prophecy passage that has some figurative language is the one mentioned earlier about Israel being restored to living in the Promised Land of Palestine. Ezekiel 36-37 and Amos 9:14-15 predicted that Israel’s fortunes would be restored and that they would be allowed to return to the Promised Land, never to be uprooted from the land ever again. But the Luke 21:22 rule says these predictions had to be fulfilled by 70 AD. Israel did not literally return to Palestine by 70 AD; instead they were scattered and driven away from Jerusalem. But we do believe that those predictions were fulfilled by 70 AD, but were fulfilled figuratively and not literally. They were not fulfilled in 1948 as many teach as that would violate Luke 21:22. Also those promises were only made to the remnant of believing Jews who would accept Jesus as the Messiah, and not to the whole unbelieving nation, which is Paul’s argument in Romans 9:1-4. He said that God fulfilled all His OT promises to Israel but the promises were only made to the remnant and not to the whole nation, most of whom did not believe in Jesus. So how was spiritual Israel’s fortunes restored and how did they return to the land? Figuratively. The believing remnant were given spiritual fortunes of eternal life and they were placed in the eternal safety of the hands of God, which would be the land return fulfillment. John 10:26 But you do not believe, because you are not of My sheep. 27 My sheep listen to My voice, and I know them, and they follow Me; 28 and I give them eternal life, and they will never perish; and no one will snatch them out of My hand. 29 My Father, who has given them to Me, is greater than all; and no one is able to snatch them out of the Father’s hand. 30 I and the Father are one.”
DAVID WILL BE KING Another such OT predictive passage that has some figurative language is Jeremiah 33:17-18 “For this is what the Lord says: ‘David will never fail to have a man to sit on the throne of Israel, nor will the Levitical priests ever fail to have a man to stand before me to offer burnt offerings, to burn grain offerings and to present sacrifices continually'”. This would occur in the Messianic Age. The Luke 21:22 rule says that had to be fulfilled by 70 AD. It also predicted offering animal burnt offerings which the book of Hebrews clearly said would be done away with by 70 AD to be replaced with the offering of the body and blood of Jesus. So if Jeremiah 33:17-18 was to be fulfilled literally with Levites and burnt offerings, that would be a total contradiction and would take away from the high priesthood of Jesus and the offering of his body. So it must be figurative of the eternal high priesthood of Jesus and that the offering of his body was “once for all tiime”, continuing to. cleanse sinners forever (Hebrews 9-10). Even those who say that Jesus will return in our future do not say that Jeremiah 33:17-18 will be fulfilled literally.
ISAIAH 65-66 AND 2 PETER 3. Another such OT predictive passage that has figurative language is Isaiah 65:17-25 and 66:18-24 predictions of a new Jerusalem and a new heavens and new earth. Again, the Luke 21:22 rule says this had to be fulfilled by 70 AD and it was. The New Jerusalem established in the New Testament was the church. AI: “In the Book of Revelation 21, the New Jerusalem is described as a city “prepared as a bride adorned for her husband”. Because the New Testament identifies believers and the Church as the Bride of Christ, the city symbolizes the people of God united with Him eternally. Also in the Book of Hebrews, the Apostle Paul refers to the corporate community of believers as the “city of the living God, the heavenly Jerusalem”. 2 Peter 3 is is the predicted fulfillment of the destruction of the old heaveans and earth (the Jewish system) and replacement with the new heavens and earth (the Messianic church system) in 70 AD. 2 Peter 3:13 But according to His promise we are looking for new heavens and a new earth, in which righteousness dwells.” Where was that promise found? Isaiah 65 and 66. If it was a promise written in the OT, then Luke 21:22 said that it had to be fulfilled by 70 AD, and it was. Many Bible scholars have said that 2 Peter 3 is not talking about a literal destruction of the old heavens and earth. Some of the confusion is 2 Peter 3:12 looking for and hastening the coming of the day of God, because of which the heavens will be destroyed by burning, and the elements will melt with intense heat!” What are the “elements” of the old heavens and earth that would be burned up? Is that the elements like oxygen, nitrogen, hydrogen, etc. that make up the earth? The Greek word for “elements” is stoicheion: Element, principle, rudiment. In the New Testament it never is used to refer to the earth elements. It is used 5 times in addition to 2 Peter 3:10,12. All 5 tiimes it refers to the elemental teachings of the world or of. Judaism (Galatians 4:3; 4:9; Colossians 2:8,20; Hebrews 5:12). It refers to the elemental teachings of Judaism in 2 Peter that would be destrooyed and removed in 70 AD (Hebrews 8:13, written in 60 AD, said that the law was about to disappear in 70 AD). Again, a lot of figurative language but understandable.
ANALOGY PROPHECIES Another type of fulfillment besides “predictive” prophecy is simply analogies. In Matthew 15 Jesus said that Isiah predicted the hardness of the hearts of the Jews Jesus was teaching and quoted Isiah 29:13. That prediction is not a one and only one time prediction about the evil Jews such as Micah 5:2. It is simply an analogy. The Jews in Isaiah’s tiime were evil just liked the Jews in Jesus’ time, so you could say that Isaiah’ prediction was being fulfilled in Jesus’ time. These analogies were never meant to be used to identify the Messiah.
5) FIGURATIVE LANGUAGE IN THE OLD TESTAMENT. Those are 4 guidelines to interpreting prophecies to be literal or figurative. There are several common sense interpretation of figurative language through out the Old Testament. There are several categories of obvious figurative language just as in our English language studies. AI: “Figurative language is woven throughout the entire Old Testament. While found in historical narratives, it is heavily concentrated in three primary literary genres: Poetic Literature (the Psalms, Song of Solomon), Wisdom Literature (Proverbs, Ecclesiastes), and Prophetic Literature (Isaiah, Jeremiah, Ezekiel). Specific types of figurative language appear across these sections in various forms: Metaphors and Similes: Example: “The Lord is my rock, my fortress and my deliverer…” (Psalm 18:2). Example: “He shall mount up with wings like eagles…” (Isaiah 40:31). Personification (Giving non-human things human traits): Frequently used in the Book of Proverbs to describe abstract concepts. Example: “Wisdom cries aloud in the street, she raises her voice in the markets” (Proverbs 1:20). Anthropomorphism (Giving human traits to God): Used throughout the Old Testament to help humans understand a transcendent deity. Example: “The eyes of the Lord range throughout the earth…” (2 Chronicles 16:9). Hyperbole (Deliberate Exaggeration): Found in poetic war songs and lamentations to emphasize intensityExample: “They were swifter than eagles, they were stronger than lions” (2 Samuel 1:23).
6) SHADOWS AND TYPES Shadows and types in the Bible are considered to be figurative language, called typology. AI: “A type is an actual person, event, or institution in the Old Testament that acts as a “pre-echo” or prophetic picture of a greater reality in the New Testament. A shadow (from the Greek word skia) refers to an imperfect, insubstantial outline of a future reality.
- The Shadow vs. The Substance: The New Testament uses shadow imagery to show that Old Testament practices (like dietary laws, Sabbath days, or the Levitical priesthood) were merely the outline. The “substance” or reality (soma) is Christ. This is famously outlined in Colossians 2:16-17.
- The Type and Antitype: A type (like the Old Testament Passover lamb) points forward to the “antitype” or fulfillment (Jesus Christ, the ultimate sacrifice). For example, Romans 5:14 identifies Adam as a “type” (typos) of the one who was to come, Jesus.
- Hebrews as a Primary Source: The Book of Hebrews relies heavily on this figurative language. It describes the earthly tabernacle and its rituals as “copies and shadows of what is in heaven” (e.g., Hebrews 8:5 and Hebrews 10:1).
In biblical interpretation, while these are figurative models, they are believed to represent real historical events or objects that God specifically designed to point toward Christ
7) REVELATION IS FULL OF FIGURATIVE LANGUAGE The book of Revelation is full of figurative language. [But why describe the predicted events in such figurative language?Won’t that make it harder to understand? Why so much figurative language? John wrote about real events that would happen soon, but in figurative language. In 13:18 he talks about the mark of the beast, 666 (using a numbers for letters system perhaps), but he says that those readers with insight could calculate exactly who he was talking about, probably Nero. John would not want to name Nero.
- Symbolic numbers in Revelation.
- Other times, the numbers are symbolic, such as 4 (the earth number, the 4 directions, the 4 living creatures of ch 4 who execute God’s wrath on earth); or 7 (the complete number, the 7 churches, stars, Spirits, seals, angels, plagues, bowls of wrath, heads),, or 10 (10. Horns, 10 kings), or 12 (12 gates, pearls, foundations, apostles of the church in ch 22).
Big symbolic numbers. The 1,000 year reign of Revelation 20.
- Some bigger numbers are multiples of these symbolic numbers. 1,000 is 10X10X10.
- The 1,000 years in ch 20 has been used to teach a 1,000 year reign of Christ on earth when he returns, but it only refers to the 40 year period from Acts 2 (30 AD) to the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD.
- Why do I say that? 22:7,8 says that at the end of the 1,000 years that Gog and Magog (as predicted in Ezekiel 38-39) will surround the “beloved city” which has to be Jerusalem. If this is an event soon to take place based on Rev 1:1-3 and Rev 21:4-7, then this has to be the Romans (God and Magog) surrounding Jerusalem in 70 AD.
- There is a 200 million man army (Rev 9:16) attacking (200X10^6), which is Rome. Surely a figurative number.
- There is the 144,000 who are sealed for protection (Rev 7, 14). There are the 12,000 of ch 7 (12X1000). Figurative numbers although the JW’s took the 144,000 to be a literal number of faithful members, the only ones to go to heaven. The rest, the “great multitude of every nation in Ch 7, will live on earth in paradise forever. All JW members of course.
Symbolic animals.
- Other figures like the sea beast of ch 13 are taken from OT predictions (Daniel 7 names the next 4 kingdoms: Babylon, Medo-Persia, Greeks, Romans) using lion, leopard, and bear, the same figures used to describe the sea beast Rome in ch 13 (the iron beast in Daniel 2,7). Rev 13:2 And the beast that I saw was like a leopard, and his feet were like those of a bear, and his mouth like the mouth of a lion.”
- There is also an earth beast which is the Jewish false prophets.
- The dragon in ch 12 and ch 20, which John tells us is Satan.
- The 4 living creatures in ch 4 (the same figure in Ezekiel 1).
- The 4 horsemen of ch 6 which represent conquest, war, famine, and death. This is taken from Zechariah 6.
Apparently the Holy Spirit just wanted to describe these imminent events more powerfully than just literal language, the same way we use “it’s raining cats and dogs” to describe heavy rain.
I’m sure I missed something but I hope this is helpful for those who are digging deeper into Bible study. I truly believe that the Bible is basically undersstandable. I don’t believe there are any predictions, OT or NT, that are to be fulfilled in our future. That should give us comfort when we hear the false teachers misusing scripture.



