I think so. Of course that means that I am going to tell you what I think the book is about and when it was written so as to clear up all confusion about the book! I know that means that I think I have the book figured out, but bear with me as I try to condense a summary as briefly as possible. Please look up all the verses that I cite. 4 basic points:

WHEN WOULD THE EVENTS PREDICTED IN THE BOOK HAPPEN? Revelation was the prediction of events that “must soon take place” for “the time is near” (1:1-3; 22:6,10). Many interpreters say that “soon” can be in God’s time frame and could be thousands of years. But notice that the letter was written to the 7 churches in Asia, telling them they needed to “read, heed, and keep” the words in the book (1:3) b/c the predictions applied directly to their imminent future. The Greek word mello (μέλλω), meaning “about to,” “going to,” or “ready to,” appears in Revelation 2:10 and Revelation 3:10. In Rev. 2:10, it signifies the imminent suffering of the church in Smyrna, while in Rev. 3:10, it refers to the “hour of trial” that is “about to” come upon the whole world. The phrase “I am coming quickly” is used several times to stress the need for immediate action by those reading the prophetcy. The phrase is used in 22:7,12,20 right after repeating the warning that the predictions in the book are going to happen “soon” for “the time is near”. These time statements “soon” and “near” obviously are in the time frame of the 1st century Christians in the 7 churches and not in God’s time frame. This same logic applies when Jesus said “the kingdom is at hand” (Mark 1:15). He was talking about the establishment of His spiritual kingdom, the church: “at hand” in the time frame of those he was speaking to and not God’s time frame that could be thousands of years. He did establish that spiritual kingdom, the church, within that generation. If that isn’t clear, Jesus also said, “Matthew 16:²⁸ “Truly I say to you, there are some of those who are standing here who will not taste death until they see the Son of Man coming in His kingdom.” Jesus predicted 4 times in the synoptic gospels that His 2nd coming would be within the lifetime of those he was speaking to (Matthew 10:23; 16:27-28; 24:30-34; 26:64). If He did not come within that generation as he predicted then he is a false prophet, which is what the atheists and unbelieving Jews say about him. But He did come within that generation in judgment on the Jews in 70 AD, so that just proves that He was “The Prophet”. There are no other predictions of another “coming” in the synoptics that was not to be within that generation. In Matthew 24, Jesus predicted the end of the Jewish Age (Matthew 24:14), the abomination of desolation of the temple as predicted by Daniel 9, 11, and 12 (Matthew 24:15), a tribulation of suffering of the Jewish people such as had never happened before (Matthew 24:21; Daniel 12:1-2), and the coming of the Son of Man “immediately” after the tribulation (Matthew 24:30) with stars falling from the sky. He then said, “³⁴ Truly I say to you, this generation will not pass away until all these things take place” (Matthew 24:34). The Greek word for generation is genea, which in the New Testament always refers to a 40 year period or the people living in a 40 year period. Of course, that means that the stars falling is figurative language and not literally stars falling from the sky. Such figurative apocalyptic language was used regularly in the Od Testament of judgments of nations like Babylon, and is not meant to be taken literally. Since Matthew 24 and Revelation are both predicting the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD, some have said that Matthew 24 is a mini-Revelation.

WHEN WAS THE BOOK WRITTEN? Revelation was written before 70 AD while Nero was emperor (17:9-10). At the time of writing, 5 kings (rulers or emperors of Rome) had “fallen” (were dead). Those 5 were Julius Caesar, then Augustus, Tiberius, Caligula, Claudius, The 1st century Jewish historian Josephus considered Julius Caesar to be the first ruler of Rome b/c he states that Augustus was the 2nd and Tiberius was the 3rd. Modern historians might not want to start with Julius, but it is obvious who was considered the 1st ruler when the book was written. Also the Gentile historian Seutonius in his Lives of the 12 Caesars starts with Julius as the first. So “5 have fallen, one is”. The emperor ruling at the time the book was written was the 6th ruler, Nero (54-68 AD). Thus the book was written before Nero died in 68 AD. Those who date the book as 96 AD rely exclusively on a single comment by the church father Irenaeus in the late 2nd century, saying that either the prophecy of Revelation was seen or even possibly that John was seen in the reign of Domitian (81-96 AD). But Revelation 17:9-10 gives us internal dating of the book that is far more valuable than a comment by an uninspired church father, especially one who said that Jesus died at the age of 50 which is what Irenaeus said. Irenaeus said that John was exiled to the aisle of Patmos by Domitian but other sources say that he was exiled in the reign of Nero. The “Muratorian Fragment,” dating back to 170-190 A.D., states that this work of John was written during the reign of Nero. The “Syriac version” of the New Testament, which dates back to the second century A.D., states that Revelation was written during the reign of Nero making a date of 64-68 A.D. The “Aramaic Peshitta” version has a remark that places its date prior to 70 A.D. The title page of Revelation states this work of John was written right after the reign of Nero.The “Monarchian Prologues,” that dates back to 250-350 A.D., claims that Paul also wrote to seven churches following the pattern of John’s Book writing to the 7 churches of Asia, thus placing the book even before some of the other Pauline epistles. That’s a lot of external evidence that says that the book was written during the reign of Nero, not Domitian.
 Also, some tradition says that John lived to the age of 100 and died a peaceful death, but that contradicts what Jesus predicted in Mark 10:35-40 that the brothers James and John would die a martyr’s death. James was martyred in Acts 12. Papias (60-120 AD) said that John died at the hands of the Jews just as Jesus predicted. Papias doesn’t say when that happened, but it could only have happened before 70 AD. After 70 AD and by the year 100 AD, the Jews would not have had the ability to martyr anyone. The conclusion is that John died before 70 AD, so he must have written Revelation (and his gospel and letters) before 70 AD. That explains why we don’t have any inspired writings from John talking about the fulfillment of the predictions of Revelation as an event that had already happened. That would have been nice, and surely John would have written something discussing the destruction of the temple at some point after 70 AD if he had lived to the year 100 AD. But he couldn’t b/c he died before 70 AD. BTW the temple was still standing when Revelation was written (11:2) so that is another argument that shows that the letter was written before 70 AD.

WHAT IS THE MAIN EVENT PREDICTED IN THE BOOK? Revelation is about the judgment of the harlot Jerusalem (17:1,5,15,16; 19:2) which would happen when the Romans destroyed Jerusalem and the temple in 70 AD, killing one million Jews. We know this harlot was Jerusalem b/c “this woman (harlot) you (John) saw is the great city” (17:18). The “great city” is identified as the city “where the Lord (Jesus) was crucified (11:8) which of course is Jerusalem. Many interpreters have tried to make Rome to be the “great city” but 11:8 clearly states that the great city is Jerusalem. The harlot has the name “Babylon” written on her forehead (17:5) so the harlot and the great city and Babylon all refer to the same thing, i.e. Jerusalem. The harlot is riding on a beast with 10 horns (17:3). That beast, arising out of the sea, was introduced in 13:1-2) and was like a leopard, bear, and lion. This imagery is the same as in Daniel 7:1-8 where Daniel is predicting the 4 empires to come: Babylon (lion), Medo-Persia (bear), Greece, (leopard), and Rome (the iron beast, Daniel 2:40; 7:7). So the beast in Revelation 13:1-2 and chapter 17 is Rome. The sea beast Rome would “will hate the prostitute and will make her desolate and naked, and will eat her flesh and will burn her up with fire. (17:16).” That is clearly a prediction that Rome will destroy the city of Jerusalem soon after the book was written. That happened in 70 AD when Titus sieged the city for 5 months and then destroyed the city and the temple in 70 AD. This was the judgment of the harlot Jerusalem (17:1). Revelation 18 is about the destruction of “Babylon, the great city” (18:10,21) which again is Jerusalem, the harlot. Again, many interpreters have tried to make Babylon to be Rome, but it is clearly identified as Jerusalem. Why was Jerusalem called a “harlot or prostitute” in Revelation? B/c she was the wife or bride of God in the Old Testament (Isaiah 54:5,6; Jeremiah 3:14; Ezekiel 16:8) and she for most of her history had become an “adulteress wife, who takes strangers instead of her husband!” (Ezekiel 16:32). She had worshipped and served the pagan gods of other nations (Baal, Asherah, Molech, Chemosh, Dagon, Tammuz, the “queen of heaven” Astarte or Ishtar). This is called spiritual adultery or harlotry by the prophets (Isaiah 1:21; Jeremiah 2:20; Ezekiel 16:14-15); Hosea 9:1). Revelation 17:2 calls it “sexual immorality” of the wife of God turned harlot, Jerusalem. God sent the Romans to destroy his harlot wife Jerusalem in 70 AD. It was God who 17:¹⁷ has put it in their hearts (the Romans) to execute His purpose by having a common purpose (i.e. Rome’s purpose to put down the Jewish rebellion called the Wars of the Jews and God’s purpose to destroy his adulterous wife giving God and the Romans a “common purpose”), and by giving their kingdom to the beast, until the words of God will be fulfilled.” The nations (Rome) would trample the holy city Jerusalem for 42 months (11:2) which is the length of the Wars of the Jews (66-70 AD) in killing over one million Jews. Rome was given “authority by God to act (on His behalf) for forty-two months” (13:5) to put down the Jewish rebellion and destroy the city and temple.The destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD is the main topic of Revelation.

WHAT IS THE MAIN THEME OF THE BOOK? Revelation is the “avenging of the blood of the “saints, apostles, and prophets” (18:20,24; 19:2) The harlot was “drunk with the blood of the saints, and with the blood of the witnesses of Jesus” (17:6). Those were the martyrs under the altar in 6:9-11 who died for their faith and cried out for God to avenge their blood. They were those who “because of the word of their testimony, and they did not love their life even when faced with death” (12:11). The history of Jerusalem and Israel was filled with the killing of God’s prophets that he sent to rebuke them for their harlotry. Jesus had said that generation of Jews living when he spoke were the “sons of those who killed the prophets (in the past history of Israel) and that the cup of God’s wrath against the Jews was “full”, i.e. no more time given the nation before destroying it in 70 AD (Matthew 23:29-36). The judgment of Jerusalem would come upon “that generation” living when Jesus spoke. The destruction of the temple would be within that generation (Matthew 24:1-2,34). Over one million Jews were killed by the Romans to avenge the blood of the saints, apostles, and prophets. The unbelieving Jews were the ones who killed the Jewish Christians (the “saints”) right up till the wars of the Jews started in 66 AD. 1 Thessalonians 2:14-16) says that the unbelieving Jews had persecuted the Jewish Christians, killed Jesus and the prophets, and drove the apostles out. Paul said that generation of evil Jews would “reach the limit of their sins. But wrath has come upon them fully” (which refers to their judgment in 70 AD). That’s the cup full of God’s wrath against the Jews that Jesus spoke of in Matthew 23.

I hope this is all a correct interpretation of the book of Revelation.

I do believe that all 27 New Testament books were written before 70 AD. Here is my analysis.

THE GOSPELS: Many claim that the gospels were: 1) Not written by Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John. 2) Were written late first century after those 4 men died. This teaching has caused many to leave their faith in the Bible, especially the New Testament. If the gospels were written decades after these 4 inspired men died, then they have no authority on doctrines and teaching for us today. We don’t have the gospels originals or even copies before the year 100 AD. The oldest manuscript of the New Testament has been the John Rylands’ Fragment P52, a small fragment (John 18:31-33, 37-38) from John’s Gospel, dated to the first half of the second century. Manuscript P66 part of the Bodmer Papyri, is a crucial, early 3rd-century (c. 175–225 AD) Greek manuscript containing a significant, nearly complete portion of the Gospel of John. So what is the one main proof that the gospels were written before 70 AD and written by those 4 authors? Here is my take. The synoptic gospels (Mt, Mk, and Lk) all record Jesus’ prediction of the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD (Mt 24, Mk 13, and Lk 21). None of the 3 state that event had already happened at the time of writing of each gospel. If the gospels were written decades after 70 AD, then surely each gospel would say that the 70 AD predictions of Jesus had already happened, confirming that Jesus was a true prophet. Matthew directly states that prophecies were fulfilled or uses “fulfillment citations” approximately 11 to 13 times in his Gospel to establish Jesus as the Messiah, often using the formula, “This occurred in order to fulfill what was spoken of by the prophet”. Surely Matthew would have done the same with Jesus’ 70 AD predictions if they had already been fulfilled when he wrote his gospel. Why is it so important that we show that the gospels were written before 70 AD? 1) It tells us that the 4 authors were either eyewitnesses (the apostles Matthew and John), or were associated with an eyewitness (according to Papias of Hierapolis (c. 60–130 AD) Mark based his gospel on the recollections of the apostle Peter) or used eyewitness testimony to gather his material (Luke 1:1-4). That gives much more credibility to the gospels than if they were written anonymously in the late 1st century by writers who did not witness Jesus’ miracles and resurrection. 2) If the gospels were written around 50-60 AD, that is only 20-30 years after Jesus’ miracles and resurrection. That would have given opportunity for people to question or reject the anthenticity of these gospels. They would have known if Mt, Mk, Lk, and John really wrote the gospels. The early church fathers (100-325 AD) cite the gospels over 19,300 times. That shows that accepted the 4 gospels as authentic. They never quote or cite the gnostic gospels like the Gospel of Thomas, or Gospel of Judas, or Gospel of Philip, or Gospel of Mary Magdelene. Writing around 185 CE in Adversus Haereses, Irenaeus of Lyons established that there are exactly four canonical Gospels (Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John) — no more, no less — calling them the four pillars of the Church.

PAUL’S WRITINGS (13 LETTERS): Paul died from 64-67 AD, beheaded by the cruel emperor Nero. That obviously means that he wrote all his letters before 70 AD. He also predicted the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD. 1 Thessalonians 2:15-16: Paul writes that those who killed Jesus and the prophets are “filling up the measure of their sins” and that “wrath has come upon them at last”. This is interpreted as a reference to the impending judgment of 70 AD. In 2 Thessalonians 2 he predicts that the man of sin would arise and do false miracles before the 2nd coming of Jesus. He said that the man of sin would sit in the temple and claim to be God. He said that “mystery” was “already at work” at the time he wrote. That means that the man of sin had to be living when he wrote 2 Thess. That man of sin would have to be the emperor Titus who did enter the temple, claiming to be god, and who destroyed the temple in 70 AD. Obviously, that means that 2 Thess was written before 70 AD. In 1 Corinthians 15 Pau is predicting the resurrection in which believers, dead or alive, would be given immortality. Paul then stated that some of those he was writing to in Corinth would still be alive when that resurrection occurred: 15:⁵¹ Behold, I am telling you a mystery; we will not all sleep, but we will all be changed.” That resurrection was the resurrection predicted in Daniel 12:2 to happen at the end of the Jewish Age in 70 AD. It was the one that Paul said was “about to happen” in Acts 24:15. “While the early Church Fathers (Apostolic Fathers and later Ante-Nicene Fathers) did not quote every single verse from Paul’s letters immediately, they collectively quoted or alluded to all 13 epistles attributed to him in the New Testament over the 2nd and 3rd centuries. Major Pauline letters like Romans, 1 Corinthians, and Ephesians were quoted frequently, while minor letters were cited less often but still recognized, strengthening the evidence for the Pauline canon.” Bart Ehrman says that Paul only wrote 7 of the letters attributed to him, but I think that I will trust the early church fathers that he wrote all of his letters more than I trust Ehrman’s liberal teaching.

PETER’S WRITINGS (1,2 PETER): Peter, like Paul, also died from 64-67 AD, crucified upside down according to tradition, at the hands of Nero. Obviously that means his writings had to be written before 70 AD. Early church fathers quoted or cited 1 Peter frequently, but 2 Peter was rarely cited and often disputed until the 3rd or 4th century. 1 Peter was accepted early, cited by Polycarp (c. 130) and Irenaeus. 2 Peter is generally absent in early, undisputed writing, with its first clear mentions appearing in Origen (c. 250) and Eusebius (c. 325). It was disputed due to style differences from 1 Peter, repetition of Jude in chapter 2 (did Peter copy Jude or did Jude copy Peter or neither), and questions about who wrote it. But eventually it was accepted. I wonder if 2 Peter 3 predicting the destruction of the old heavens and earth to be replace with a new heavens and earth didn’t cause many to question the authenticity of 2 Peter. If you were a chiliast and expected Jesus to return soon back then to establish an earthly kingdom and it didn’t happen like you thought it would, then even 2nd century church fathers might have been reluctant to cite 2 Peter. Of course, if you believe that 2 Peter 3 is predicting the destruction of the old Jewish system and replacing it with the new Messianic system in 70 AD, then 2 Peter actually proves that it was authentic b/c he is predicting an event that happened in 70 AD just a few years after he wrote 2 Peter. That makes sense also since 1 Peter 4 predicted ⁷ The end of all things is near.” The end of all things had to happen soon or else Peter is a false prophet. 2 Peter 3 is predicting the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD, which was indeed “near”. The “end of all things” would surely include the end of the old heavens and earth, and that had to be “near” in 2 Peter 3 since the end of “all things” was near. So 2 Peter 3 is not talking about the physical destruction of the earth to be replaced with a newly re-created earth, which is what many teach. 2 Peter 3 had to be predicting something that was going to happen soon, and the destruction of the earth did not happen soon. BTW, the Greek word for the “elements” in 2 Peter 3 that were predicted to be burned never refers to the physical elements of the universe, like hydrogen, oxygen, etc. It is used 7 times and always refer to the basic rudimentary principles of the Law of the Jews or of pagan law. So we do conclude that Peter’s writings, including 2 Peter, were written before 70 AD.

James (the Lord’s brother): We don’t know when James died, but Josephus says he died in 62 AD. If so, his letter was written before 70 AD. But internal evidence shows that it was written before 70 AD. James 5:1 Come now, you rich people, weep and howl for your miseries which are coming upon you. ² Your riches have rotted and your garments have become moth-eaten. ³ Your gold and your silver have corroded, and their corrosion will serve as a testimony against you and will consume your flesh like fire. It is in the last days that you have stored up your treasure!” That was written to scattered Jewish Christians who were oppressing the poor. That “last days” are the last days of the Jewish Age which ended in 70 AD. The miseries coming upon them would be the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD during which one million evil Jews suffered and died. James 5:⁸ You too be patient; strengthen your hearts, for the coming of the Lord is near.” There is only one predicted 2nd coming in the gospels and the letters, and it had to happen within that generation of Jews. It did happen in 70 AD. So this coming of the Lord in James 5:8 would be the 2nd coming in 70 AD. So the letter of James was written before 70 AD.

Jude (the Lord’s brother): the Book of Jude was cited, used, and recognized as canonical by several early Church Fathers despite being considered a “disputed” book by some. Despite that it quoted the book of Enoch and the Assumption of Moses (two apocryphal books not accepted into the NT canon). It was accepted by prominent leaders such as Clement of Alexandria, Tertullian, and Origen, and included in the early Muratorian Canon. (180-200 AD). It appears in the third-century Bodmer Papyrus (p72) (dated 3rd and 4th centuries) alongside 1 & 2 Peter, indicating it was part of the early “General Epistles” collection. The only indication that it was written before 70 AD is Jude ¹⁷ But you, beloved, ought to remember the words that were spoken beforehand by the apostles of our Lord Jesus Christ, ¹⁸ that they were saying to you, “In the last time there will be mockers, following after their own ungodly lusts.” That has to be synonymous with “the last days” which is 30-70 AD, the last days of the Jewish Age. If so, Jude must also have been written before 70 AD. One tradition says that he died around 65 AD.

John’s gospel, letters, and Revelation: The main reason we know all of John’s writings were written before 70 AD is that John was dead before 70 AD. Tradition says that he lived to the age of 100 in Ephesus and died a peaceful death. But that contradicts Jesus’ predictiong that the brother James and John would die a marty’s death. Mark 10:³⁹ They said to Him, “We are able.” And Jesus said to them, “The cup that I drink you shall drink; and you shall be baptized with the baptism with which I am baptized.” The most plausible tradition regarding John’s death states that John was arrested in Ephesus and faced martyrdom when his enemies threw him in a huge basin of boiling oil. That tradition, arguing that he was not martyred but rescued, would contradict Jesus’ prediction. The early church father Papias (60-130 AD) said that John the theologian and James his brother were killed by Jews”. That could have only happened while the Jews had the ability to kill someone, which had to be before 70 AD. They would not have had that ability in the year 100 AD. Some dispute the what Papias said, but the fact remains that Jesus said they would be martyred and that martyrdom would have to be before 70 AD. James had already been martyred in Acts 12. John’s gospel says that the pool of Bethesda was still intact when he wrote his gospel: John 5:² Now in Jerusalem, by the Sheep Gate, there is a pool which in Hebrew is called Bethesda, having five porticoes.” The present tense verb “is” is a comment by John that the pool was still intact when he wrote his gospel. That had to be before 70 AD b/c there would be no usable pool after 70 AD. Also John does not mention the destruction of the temple in 70 AD. Surely he would have done so if that had already happened at the time he wrote the gospel. So the gospel of John was written before 70 AD. His letters (1,2,3 John): early church fathers recognized and cited 1, 2, and 3 John, though 1 John was cited more frequently than the shorter 2 and 3 John. Key figures such as Irenaeus, Clement of Alexandria, Origen, and Eusebius cited these epistles and attributed them to the Apostle John. 1 John 2 says that it was the “last hour” at the time of writing. 1 John 2:¹⁸ Children, it is the last hour; and just as you heard that antichrist is coming, even now many antichrists have appeared; from this we know that it is the last hour.” The last hour of what? That has to be the last hour of the last days of the Jewish Age which ended in 70 AD. While the phrase may not mean the last 60 minutes before the end of the last days, it surely indicates a time very close to the end of the last days. It definitely indicates that 1 John was written before 70 AD. We assume that he wrote 1,2,3 John b/c he died and he died before 70 AD. Obviously Revelation would have to be written before 70 AD since John died before 70 AD. Many have said that, based on a statement by Irenaeus in 180 AD, Revelation was written in 96 AD in the reign of Domitian. But the internal evidence shows that Revelation was written during the reign of emperor Nero (54-68 AD) so it had to be written before 68 AD. Revelation 17:⁹ Here is the mind which has wisdom. The seven heads are seven mountains upon which the woman sits, ¹⁰ and they are seven kings; five have fallen, one is, the other has not yet come; and when he comes, he must remain a little while.” These kings are the kings or emperors of the sea beast Rome. Nero was the 6th king or emperor and living at the time John wrote Revelation (5 have fallen, died and one “is”). We start with Julius Caesar as the first of those 6 kings. In Antiquities book xvii second chapter, Josephus states that Augustus was the second Emperor. Two sentences later he states that Tiberius was the third.  Josephus (37-100 AD) lived in the first century and surely would have known who everyone considered to be the first ruler of Rome. The Gentile historian Seutonius, in his book The Twelve Caesars in 121 AD, started his list of caesars with Julius, not Augustus. Also Revelation predicts the 2nd coming as a future yet to be fulfilled event at the time of writing (Revelation 22:7,12,20 Jesus says “I am coming quickly”. That had to be coming of Jesus that was soon after the time of writing of Revelation b/c Revelation 1 and 22 state that the predictions given in Revelation would “soon take place”, be “near”. So that coming had to be soon or near, and that could only fit Jesus’ coming in 70 AD to judge the Jews. That means Revelation was written before 70 AD. Also Revelation predicts the destruction of the “great city” in Revelation 17:15-18. That great city was “where our Lord was crucified” (Revelation 11:8) which means it is Jerusalem. So the book of Revelation makes a prediction of the destruction of Jerusalem as a future event at the time of writing, so the book had to be written before 70 AD. So all of John’s writings, including Revelation, were written before 70 AD.

Hebrews: If Paul wrote the letter, then Hebrews would have to be written before 68 AD when Paul was beheaded by Nero. The early church in the East thought Paul wrote it but the church in the West did not think he wrote it and disputed the authenticity of the book. I don’t believe that Paul wrote it. Paul never would have said that the salvation first spoken through the Lord “was confirmed to us by those who heard.” (Hebrews 2:3) In Galations 1 he argues that he got his gospel directly from Jesus and not from any humans or even the apostles. So if Paul wasn’t the author, how can we know that Hebrews was written before 70 AD. There are severa proofs that it was written before 70 AD. 1) The temple was still standing and priest ministering in the temple at the time of writing: Hebrews 9:⁶ Now when these things have been so prepared, the priests are continually entering the outer tabernacle, performing the divine worship, ⁷ but into the second, only the high priest enters once a year, not without taking blood which he offers for himself and for the sins of the people committed in ignorance. ⁸ The Holy Spirit is signifying this, that the way into the holy place has not yet been disclosed while the outer tabernacle is still standing.” These are present tense verbs: “priests are continually entering the tabernacle” and “the outer tabernacle is still standing”. Unfortunately the NIV translates those verbs as past tense, “was”. The priests are still ministering in the temple at the time of writing: Hebrews 10:¹¹ Every priest stands daily ministering and offering time after time the same sacrifices, which can never take away sins (again, a present tense verb “stands”). The temple was destroyed in 70 AD, so this means that the letter was written before 70 AD. 2) Hebrews predicts a coming of Jesus that will be soon with no delay. Hebrews 10:37 For yet in a very little while; He who is coming will come, and will not delay.” That coming had to be Jesus coming soon in the judgment of the Jews in 70 AD. 3) Hebrews predicts an imminent judgment of the evil Jews. Hebrews 10:²⁶ For we — willfully sinning after the receiving the full knowledge of the truth — no more for sins doth there remain a sacrifice, ²⁷ but a certain fearful looking for of judgment, and fiery zeal, about to devour the opposers”. (Young’s Literal Translation). I cite YLT b/c it accurately translates the word “mello” as “about to” The word mello in the NT always means “about to”. So there was a judgment of the Jews that was “about to happen” at the time of writing, and that could only be the judgment of the Jews in 70 AD and the letter had to be written before that. For these 3 reasons we conclude that Hebrews was written before 70 AD regardless of whole wrote the letter. Whoever wrote it was inspired or he/she could not have made such accurate predictions.

My prayer is that someone who has questioned the authenticity of the NT books will read this article closely. This is a critical study b/c the implications are serious. I hope this helps.

AI: “The Shakers, or United Society of Believers in Christ’s Second Appearing, are a 18th-century Christian sect founded in England and known for communal, celibate, and pacifist lifestyles, along with ecstatic, trembling worship. Founded by Mother Ann Lee, they aimed to create heaven on earth through gender equality, communal ownership, and simple, industrious living. Founded in 1747 in Manchester, England, as a branch of Quakers, they moved to America in 1774. They believed that God is both male and female and that Mother Ann Lee was the female embodiment of Jesus’ 2nd appearing. They believed the Second Coming was not a physical, apocalyptic return of Jesus, but a spiritual rebirth that already occurred in the person of Mother Ann Lee. Practiced strict celibacy, requiring members to be unmarried and adopt children or gain converts, and held all property in common. Known as “Shaking Quakers” for their emotional, chaotic, and physical worship services involving dancing, whirling, and trembling to “shake off” sin. Emphasized gender and racial equality, with men and women sharing leadership roles. Famous for their simple, functional furniture design, architecture, and agricultural success. At their peak in 1840, they had over 6,000 members in 19 communal villages across the United States. Today, the faith has nearly disappeared, but their legacy lives on through their furniture, music, and simple design philosophy.As of late 2025, there are three active Shakers remaining in the world, all living at the Sabbathday Lake Shaker Village in New Gloucester, Maine, the last active Shaker community. This small community relies heavily on volunteers and visitors to maintain its historic site museum, which draws thousands annually.”

Shakers believed Jesus was the male manifestation of the “Christ spirit,” representing the first Christian Church, but not divine in the traditional Trinity sense. They viewed him as a celibate example, whose incarnation marked the beginning of a new spiritual, non-carnal life, with the Second Coming fulfilled in their leader, Mother Ann Lee. Shakers did not believe Jesus was God, but rather a human infused with the divine Christ spirit. Jesus established the first Christian church, which Shakers believed apostatized (fell away) shortly after his death. Shakers taught that Jesus lived a life of absolute purity and celibacy, establishing a model for overcoming the “original sin” of sexual intercourse. Shakers viewed themselves as the “Second Church” or the “Millennial Church” that continued the work begun by Jesus. The Shakers (United Society of Believers) generally did not subscribe to the traditional Christian doctrine that Jesus’ death on the cross atoned for the sins of mankind. Instead, they emphasized that salvation was achieved through personal, daily effort, confession of sins, and following the celibate, sinless example of Jesus. Shakers believed in working out their own salvation through confession, confession, celibacy, and rigorous, holy, daily living. They focused on the idea that each individual must walk the same path of self-denial and perfection that Jesus did. Shakers believed that the original sin was sexual, and therefore, overcoming “lust” through absolute celibacy was a key part of the path to salvation. Therefore, while they revered Jesus, their theology focused more on spiritual resurrection and behavioral transformation than on the substitutionary atonement of his death.”

In. other words, they don’t believe in salvation by grace through faith in Jesus’ death on the cross It is basically a salvation by works system. That and their belief that Mother Ann was an embodiment of Jesus definitely makes them a cult. Cults like the Shakers are fascinating. Their synchronized line type dancing in their worship assemblies is just he opposite of the Quakers sitting silently meditation, waiting for the Spirit to move someone to give a word or sing a song. They split off the Quakers and wer basically “Shaking Quakers”. I guess they wanted more emotion in their assembies!

Which could bring up another discussion: the role of emotion in worship assemblies today. The 16 day Asbury Revival in Wilmore, Ky in February, 2023 at Asbury University is estimated to have drawn 50,000–70,000 visitors to a town of 6,000 people, with over 200 other institutions represented. There have been studies about the lasting effects of the revival, some very good that led to transformed lived and service, and some emotion that died out quickly even leaving many disillusioned. Megachurches rely on emotional, band led singing but they follow up with conversions and community service. Some churches practice tongue speaking, which would surely stir up emotion but are they really speaking in the same tongues as found in the early church? I personally do not think so. Those tongues were actual human languages and tongue speaking today is not languages. It is also interesting that often many are speaking in tongues at the same time even though 1 Corinthians 14 gave instructions to only have 2 or 3 tongue speakers at the most in an assembly, and those only speaking one at a time.

I thought this was great from AI (from some articles somewhere!). “Emotions in worship assemblies serve as a natural, authentic response to encountering God, engaging the heart, mind, and spirit rather than just the intellect. While encouraging sincere expression of joy, gratitude, and contrition, they should not be manufactured or manipulated to “create an atmosphere”, serving instead as a means of deepening understanding of divine truth. Music plays a significant role in drawing out emotional responses on a visceral level, often making singing a high point of emotional engagement. While emotions are important, they must not become the primary goal (emotionalism) or replace the need for theological understanding. Emotions in worship are meant to follow facts and be rooted in God’s character and actions, rather than being fickle or self-focused. In essence, emotions are a vital, God-designed component of worship that, when authentic, enhance a person’s engagement with the divine, making them a necessary, but not the ultimate, part of the worship experience.”

I hope you don’t mind me pulling so much from AI but why re-invent the wheel. AI scans many great articles and seems to usually come up with great material, so I use it and add my own thoughts.

Does your worship assembly stir up your emotions?

Matthew 24 is key to all eschatology:  Here is the equence of events in Matthew 24 : 

1 The gospel would be preached to the whole world and then “the end would come”. 24:¹⁴ This gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in the whole world as a testimony to all the nations, and then the end will come. Colossians 1:23 Paul said that had been fulfilled by the time he wrote Colossians in 60 AD. That would be the end of the Jewish Age in 70 AD, not the end of the world. The old covenant was valid for the Jews till 70 AD. Hebrews 8:13, written about 60 AD, said, 8:¹³ When He said, “A new covenant (i.e. the new covenant promised in Jeremiahs 31:31-34),” He has made the first obsolete (the old covenant). But whatever is becoming obsolete and growing old is about to disappear.” It did officially disappear in 70 AD. The temple was destroyed, no more animal sacrifices since then, no more priests. No one could even try to keep the Law of Moses after that.

2 The abomination of desolation predicted by Daniel would be fulfilled within the generation that Jesus was speaking to. Matthew 24¹⁵ “Therefore when you see the abomination of desolation which was spoken of through Daniel the prophet.” The “abomination of desolation” is mentioned 3 times in Daniel 9,11,12. 1) Daniel 9:²⁴ “Seventy weeks have been decreed for your people and your holy city, to finish the wrongdoing, to make an end of sin, to make atonement for guilt, to bring in everlasting righteousness, to seal up vision and prophecy, and to anoint the Most Holy Place. ²⁵ So you are to know and understand that from the issuing of a decree to restore and rebuild Jerusalem, until Messiah the Prince, there will be seven weeks and sixty-two weeks; it will be built again, with streets and moat, even in times of distress. ²⁶ Then after the sixty-two weeks, the Messiah will be cut off and have nothing, and the people of the prince who is to come will destroy the city and the sanctuary. And its end will come with a flood; even to the end there will be war; desolations are determined. ²⁷ And he will confirm a covenant with the many for one week, but in the middle of the week he will put a stop to sacrifice and grain offering; and on the wing of abominations will come the one who makes desolate, until a complete destruction, one that is decreed, gushes forth on the one who makes desolate.” Notice this abomination of desolation would be at the same time as the destruction of the city (Jerusalem) and sanctuary (the temple) by the peole of some prince. That prince will be Titus who led the Romans armies in the destruction of Jerusalem and the temple in 70 AD. Notice that the Messiah (Jesus) would be cut off (die) at the end of the 69th week, which would be 30 AD. That leaves a 70th week, but the 70th week ends with the abomination of desolation of the temple. When would that be? Jesus said that all the events predicted in Matthew 24 would be fulfilled in that generation. Matthew 24:³⁴ Truly I say to you, this generation will not pass away until all these things take place.” Genea always in the NT refers to a 40 year period. So the abomination of desolation had to be fulfilled with 40 years after Jesus’ prediction. So it had to be the desolation of the temple by the Romans in 70 AD. The Roman army brought their military standards, which featured images of the Emperor (worshipped as idols by soldiers), into the Temple area, marking it as a “desolation”. Maybe the soldiers even offered sacrifices to their standards (Josephus). Even if we are unsure about the 7 weeks and 62 weeks part, we can be sure that the 70th week ended at 70 AD. That destroys all the false predictions of the 70th week being in our future! The 70th week would be the last 7 years beore 70 AD which woud be 63-70 AD. That leaves a gap between the 69th and 70th week, but that is to be expected. After Jesus’ death at the end of the 69th week in 30 AD, there was an indefinite period until the 70th week would begin which would end in 70 AD. That would force people to be ready at all times during that gap between the 69th and 70th week. Notice that the end of the 70th week (70 AD) would “seal up vision and prophecy” (Daniel 9:24). There would be no more prophetic visions or predictions to be fulfilled after 70 AD. All the New Testament books were written before 70 AD. All the writers of the New Testament died before 70 AD. EvenJohn the apostle died before 70 AD. Papias (60-130 AD) said that John died at the hands of the Jews just as his brother James died (Acts 12), just as Jesus had predicted that the two brothers would die a martyr’s death just as Jesus would (Mark 10:35-40). That could only be before 70 AD since the Jews would not have the power to kill him in the year 100 AD, which is what tradition says that he lived to (and that he died a peacefu death). If he died a peaceful death, then Jesus’ prophecy would fail to come true. 2) Daniel 11:³¹ Forces from him will arise, desecrate the sanctuary fortress, and do away with the regular sacrifice. And they will set up the abomination of desolation. Again, fulfilled in 70 AD. 3) Daniel 12: ¹¹ And from the time that the regular sacrifice is abolished and the abomination of desolation is set up, there will be 1,290 days. Again, fulfilled in 70 AD. All of Daniel 12 is predicting “the end time or the end of the age” (12:4, 9, 13). Matthew 24:14 Jesus said that the end would come within that generation (24:30) so “the end” is the end of the Jewish Age in 70 AD, not the end of the world.

3 An unparalleled (in the history of the Jews at least) tribulation on the Jews within that generation. Matthew 24:²¹ For then there will be a great tribulation, such as has not occurred since the beginning of the world until now, nor ever will again.” This was a tribulation of the Jews, not Christians as many try to apply it to today. Daniel 12 predicted this tribulation of the Jews to occur at the end of the age (70 AD). Daniel 12:And there will be a time of distress such as never occurred since there was a nation until that time; and at that time your people, everyone who is found written in the book, will be rescued.” Daniel 12:7 it would be for a time, times, and half a time; and as soon as they finish smashing the power of the holy people, all these events will be completed.” (the holy people would be the Jews who would be smashed). But wasn’t the Holocaust (7 million Jews killed) worse than AD 70 (one million Jews killed)? The Jews as a nation were no longer God’s holy people or nation when the Holocaust occurred. Again, this tribulation in Matthew 24:21 had to happen within that generation (24:34). So the tribulation happened from 66-70 AD, happened to the Jews in all Palestine and Jerusalem, and there are no prophecies predicting some tribulation in our future as many preach today.

4 The Son of Man would come and the stars would fall. Matthew 24:²⁹ “But immediately after the tribulation of those days the sun will be darkened, and the moon will not give its light, and the stars will fall from the sky, and the powers of the heavens will be shaken. ³⁰ And then the sign of the Son of Man will appear in the sky, and then all the tribes of the earth will mourn, and they will see the Son of Man coming on the clouds of the sky with power and great glory.” Again, this coming of Jesus (the 2nd coming) had to be fulfilled in that generation (24:30), so it must be his coming in judgment on the Jews in 70 AD. This is consistent with all of Jesus’ other 3 predictions that his 2nd coming would be within the lifetime of those he was speaking to. 1) Matthew 10:²³ “But whenever they persecute you in one city, flee to the next; for truly I say to you, you will not finish going through the cities of Israel until the Son of Man comes.” 2) Matthew 16:²⁷ For the Son of Man is about to come in the glory of His Father with His angels, and will then repay every person according to his deeds. ²⁸ “Truly I say to you, there are some of those who are standing here who will not taste death until they see the Son of Man coming in His kingdom.” (Young’s Literal Translation). The Greek word translated “about to” is mello and in the New Testament always mean “about to happen”. Young’s Literal Translation translates it correctly though most translations translate it incorrectly as “is going to come”. Some try to say this was fulfilled in the transfiguration (Matthew 17) but 16:27 involves judgment and that didn’t happen at the transfiguration but it did happen in 70 AD with the judgment of the Jews. This clearly shows that some of those listening to Jesus would still be alive at his 2nd coming. If not, then Jesus is a false prophet just as the atheists and unbelieving Jews claim. 3) Matthew 26:⁶⁴ Jesus saith to him (Caiaphas), `Thou hast said; nevertheless I say to you, hereafter ye shall see the Son of Man sitting on the right hand of the power, and coming upon the clouds, of the heaven.’ Caiaphas might not have lived to 70 AD (tradition says he died long before 70 AD but perhaps Jesus was speaking to those with Caiaphas, some of whom would live till 70 AD and his 2nd coming). I always challenge people to show me any verse in the gospels where Jesus predicts a coming back that is not within the generation of those he was speaking to. The apostles also taught an imminent 2nd coming. The early Christians expected the 2nd coming to be in their lifetime. Why wouldn’t they since that is what Jesus and the apostles taught them?
The stars also had to fall within that generation (24:30) and they did not literally fall to the earth. This is typical apocalyptic language as used of judgments in the Old Testament. In Isaiah 19:1 describes God coming in the clouds which is very similar wording to what is found in Matthew 24 but in Isaiah it has reference to the destruction of Egypt.” Isaiah 13:10 For the stars of heaven and their constellations will not flash their light; the sun will be dark when it rises and the moon will not shed its light (fulfilled with the fall of Babylon in 536 BC).” Isaiah 34:4 And all the heavenly lights will wear away, and the sky will be rolled up like a scroll; all its lights will also wither away (fulfilled in the judgment of nations in Isaiah’s time).” So the stars did fall figuratively within that generation at 70 AD. Notice the timing: Jesus would come “immediately after the tribulation”. If the tribulation was the horrors the Jews faced in the wars of the Jews from 66-70 AD, and it was, then Jesus’ coming had to be immediately after that and not 2,000 years later. That fits 24:30 that this had to happen within that generation. Notice “they will see Him coming in the clouds”. Similar to Revelation 1:⁷ Behold, He is coming with the clouds, and every eye will see Him, even those who pierced Him; and all the tribes of the earth will mourn over Him.” Acts 1:11 This Jesus, who has been taken up from you into heaven, will come in the same way as you have watched Him go into heaven.” 1) Whatever this means, it happened within that generation (24:30) so we must figure out what it meant in 70 AD at his 2nd coming. Many have a preconceived idea of everyone on earth seeing the literal body of Jesus coming down at His 2nd coming, but that is not what the passage means. 2) It simply means that all who were responsible for piercing (crucifying) Jesus (i.e. the Jews) of the tribes of the earth (i.e. the Jewish 12 tribes) would see Jesus coming (figuratively) in judgment using the Romans. They would mourn when that happened. In that sense, every eye of the Jews in the city did see His 2nd coming in 70 AD. Someone might say, “That sounds like the supposed invisible coming of Jesus in 1914 that the Jehovah’s Witnesses teach.” Not really, b/c nothing at happened on earth in 1914 as evidence of a 2nd coming. But in 70 AD, the proof of his 2nd coming was obvious in the destruction of the temple and the city, and the killing of one million Jews.

5 All these predicted events in Matthew 24 had to be fulfilled within that generation. Matthew 24:³⁴ Truly I say to you, this generation will not pass away until all these things take place.” The Greek work is genea and in the New Testament it always refers to a 40 year period or the people living in a 40 year period. Period! No exceptions to that. Matthew 1 lists 42 generations from Abraham to Jesus, which is about 2,000 years. Hebrews 3:9 Where your fathers put Me to the test, and saw My works for forty years.¹⁰ Therefore I was angry with this generation”. In Matthew 23, just before the left the temple and made the predictions in Matthew 24, Jesus condemned the Pharisees and scribes. His final word was that they would be punished for the sins of the nation for the last 1500 years, for the murers of the prophets from Abel to Zechariah. He said, Matthew 23:³⁶ Truly I say to you, all these things will come upon this generation.” Isn’t it obvious that he is talking about that specific generation of evil Jews that he would punish in 70 AD? Matthew 24:34 uses that same word genea in the very next chapter. Would that not also be that specific generation of Jews in that next 40 years? Jesus often called the Jews of that generation an adulterous and evil generation. I am amazed when I hear preachers on TV say that Jesus’ 2nd coming is imminent today. They use Matthew 24 to try to prove that. They will quote Matthew 24:34 to say that Jesus is predicting the 2nd coming to be within the generation of those listening to the preacher’s prediction of imminency. So they are saying that the word genea means 40 years. But if it means 40 years today, why did it not mean 40 years back then when Jesus predicted that? If it means a specific “last generation” (i.e. last generation before the 2nd coming) today, why did it not mean that back when Jesus spoke it?

6 The rest of the chapter (vs 36-51) is still talking about that same 2nd coming of vs 1-35. Still a coming within that generation and not some “3rd coming” at least 2,000 years later (as of today). Matthew 24:37 For the coming of the Son of Man will be just like the days of Noah. 38 For as in those days before the flood they were eating and drinking, marrying and giving in marriage, until the day that Noah entered the ark, 39 and they did not understand until the flood came and took them all away; so will the coming of the Son of Man be. 40 At that time there will be two men in the field; one will be taken and one will be left. 41 Two women will be grinding at the mill; one will be taken and one will be left.” Why would vs 37 and vs 39 be introducing a 3rd coming at least 2,000 years later. He is discussing the coming that he has just predicted to happen within that generation, is he not? Some say that vs 1-35 indeed predict AD 70, but that vs 36-61 predict another coming that is still in our future, but that is not true Notice the 2nd coming will be like the days of Noah in which the wicked were taken (killed, i.e. the evil people before the flood) and the righteous will be left (i.e. Noah and his family). The evil Jews would be taken (killed by the Romans) and the righteous will be left (i.e. surive the destruction of Jerusalem: according to Eusebius all the Christians in Jerusalem escaped the city, heeding the warnings given them in Matthew 24, when they had the chance and fled to Pella). Those who teach a rapture at the 2nd coming teach it totally backwards. They say the righteous will be taken (raptured) and the wicked will be left on earth, which would not fit the 2nd coming that Jesus is talking about. So is the doctrine of the rapture of Christians before the 2nd coming even valid? It is based on 1 Thessalonians 4:16 For the Lord Himself will descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel and with the trumpet of God, and the dead in Christ will rise first. 17 Then we who are alive, who remain, will be caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air, and so we will always be with the Lord.” 1) f the 2nd coming was in 70 AD, then this passage occurred in 70 AD regardless of how it happened. It was fulfilled at 70 AD and is not something to happen at some future coming of Jesus. 2) This passage can’t be introducing a future coming of Jesus past 70 AD since nowhere else in the New Testament predicts such a coming. This passage must be referring to the same 2nd coming in 70 AD that all the NT predicts. 3) What does it mean if it happened in 70 AD (and it did happen in 70 AD)? A common practice was that a king or nobleman would visit a city. The people in the city would go out to meet him and then the king would accompany them back into the city to spend time with them. That is what this passage is talking about. Jesus would come in the clouds in 70 AD. Christians alive at that time would meet him (figuratively) and then Jesus would go with them to where they lived on earth and make his presence with them. It is not talking about Jesus meeting them and taking them up to heaven. So there is no rapture before 70 AD as many teach (Tim LaHaye Left Behind).

Luke 21 is a parallel chapter to Matthew 24, but it does add a few things. Luke 21:²⁰ “But when you see Jerusalem surrounded by armies, then recognize that her desolation is near. ²¹ Then those who are in Judea must flee to the mountains, and those who are inside the city must leave, and those who are in the country must not enter the city; ²² because these are days of punishment, so that all things which have been written will be fulfilled. ²³ Woe to those women who are pregnant, and to those who are nursing babies in those days; for there will be great distress upon the land, and wrath to this people; ²⁴ and they will fall by the edge of the sword, and will be led captive into all the nations; and Jerusalem will be trampled underfoot by the Gentiles until the times of the Gentiles are fulfilled.” Notice that this says that the desolation of Jerusalem will be when Jerusalem is surrounded by armies. That had to happen within that generation. Luke 21:³² Truly I say to you, this generation will not pass away until all things take place.” (just as in Matthew 24). So this can only be the Roman armies surrounding Jerusalem in the 5 month seige in 70 AD before they broke through the walls, destroyed the city and temple, and killed one million Jews. Notice that Jesus says that all things that have been written (which would be Old Testament predictions) would be fulfilled by 70 AD. The Old Testament predicted the destruction of Jerusalem several times: Daniel 9,11,12; Zechariah 14; Isaiah 26-29; Ezekiel 38,39. So those AD 70 predictions had to come true by AD 70. Of course, all the Messianic predictiions would also be fulfilled by 70 AD. If whoever the Messiah will be does not come by 70 AD, then he can’t come! That is a real dilemma for the Jews who don’t believe that Jesus is the real Messiah. They are left with no temple and no hope of a real Messiah coming some day in our future. Many Jews have abandoned the very idea of some Messiah person coming some day. Revelation 10:7 says that when the events predicted in Revelation (i.e. the predictions about 70 AD) that the mystery of God as spoken through the old testament prophets would be finished. Notice that Jerusalem would be trampled underfoot by the Gentiles. That would have to be the Romans. Revelation, which is about predictions of the destruction of Jerusalem and the temple in 70 AD, predicts this same thing. Revelation 11: ² Leave out the courtyard which is outside the temple and do not measure it, because it has been given to the nations; and they will trample the holy city for forty-two months.” That verse also shows that the temple was still standing when the book of Revelation was written, which was probably about 63 AD. Notice that Jerusalem would be trampled until the times of the Gentiles are fulfilled. The meaning of that is debated. A similar phrase is used in Romans 9:²⁵ For I do not want you, brothers and sisters, to be uninformed of this mystery—so that you will not be wise in your own estimation—that a partial hardening has happened to Israel until the fullness of the Gentiles has come in; ²⁶ and so all Israel will be saved.” This is a very controversial verse. I think it means when the Gentiles have been brought into the church fully in 70 AD. During the transition period from 30-70 AD they were brought in gradually by the preaching of the apostles and that process was completed fully by 70 AD.

If you have any interest in eschatology at all, I hope this helps. If what you hear from preachers is confusing to you, I hope this helps. If you are not interested at all in eschatology, that is fine. But someone needs to correct all the false teaching about eschatology that leaves people confused.

Also, understanding the fulfilled predictions of Matthew 24 to be 70 AD helps bolster my faith in Jesus as the Prophet and faith in the Bible that records all these predictions to know that they were all fulfilled in 70 AD. That in turn helps bolster my faith in the main message in the Bible, which is salvation by grace through faith in Jesus’ death on the cross. I have a friend who says that understanding all this basically saved his faith since he was having so many questions about Bible predictions. It has to bother you as a Christian when an atheist says that Jesus is a false prophet b/c his predictions of his imminent 2nd coming did not come to pass. The atheist philosopher Bertrand Russell argued that Jesus could not be considered the “best and wisest of men” partly because he believed Jesus predicted his second coming would occur within the lifetime of his followers, a prediction that did not come true. Russell argued that Jesus clearly believed his second coming would happen “in clouds of glory” before all the people then living had passed away, citing Matthew 16:28 (“There are some standing here which shall not taste death till the Son of Man comes into His kingdom”) as a primary example.” (AI) Even the Christian C.S. Lewis famously addressed Matthew 10:23 (along with similar verses) as “the most embarrassing verse in the Bible,” acknowledging the apparent, mistaken prediction of an immediate return by Jesus. He argued this honesty suggests the Gospels are reliable, as creators of a forgery would likely have removed such a difficult, time-sensitive prediction.” That is really twisted logic! Lewis is saying that Jesus was mistaken in his prediction. But instead of saying that makes Jesus a false prophet (which it would), he says it just shows the integrity of the gospel that they would record a false prediction by Jesus but ignoring that he is admitting that Jesus was a false prophet!!! What do you think an atheist like Russell would say about that logic??????