CHAPTER 24

24:1-14 Signs of Christ’s return

Mark 13 and Luke 21 comment on the beautiful stones in Herod’s temple. 

AI: “Herod’s Temple, or the Second Temple, was a massive expansion of the Jewish temple in Jerusalem begun by Herod the Great around 19 BCE. It served as the focal point of Jewish worship and the three major pilgrimage festivals until it was completely destroyed by the Roman army in 70 CE.

History and Construction

Following the return of the Jewish people from the Babylonian exile and the destruction of the First Temple (built by Solomon), the Second Temple was constructed around 516 BCE. Seeking to legitimize his rule and honor the Jewish faith, Herod the Great initiated a massive renovation and expansion project in the 1st century BC.

• The Temple Mount: Herod greatly expanded the flat esplanade of the Temple Mount by building monumental retaining walls and filling in the surrounding terrain, creating a massive, nearly 35-acre platform.
• Engineering Feats: The construction involved massive stones, some weighing hundreds of tons, which were maneuvered and set using advanced ancient techniques. 
• Timeline: While the main sanctuary took about 18 months to build, expansions and subsidiary additions continued for decades. It was frequently under construction during the time of Jesus’s ministry.

Architecture and Layout

The temple complex was renowned for its beauty and grandeur, and the Talmud noted that “he who has not seen the Temple of Herod has never seen a beautiful building”. 

• The Sanctuary: The temple building itself was faced with white marble and overlaid with gold, reflecting the sunlight so brightly that it was hard to look at directly.
• The Courts: The esplanade was surrounded by magnificent colonnades. On the southern side stood the Royal Stoa, a grand basilica used for civic and commercial purposes. Other sections included the Court of the Gentiles, the Court of the Women, and the Court of the Priests.
• The Antonia Fortress: At the northwest corner of the complex sat the Antonia Fortress, a Roman military garrison that overlooked the temple courts.

Significance and Destruction

Herod’s Temple was the epicenter of religious, cultural, and national life for the Jewish people. Complex sacrifices and rituals were performed there, and it was the destination for required annual pilgrimages.

• Destruction: In 66 CE, the First Jewish-Roman War broke out. In 70 CE, Roman legions under the command of Titus besieged and conquered Jerusalem. The Romans set fire to the temple and completely leveled it, leaving not one stone standing upon another, as prophesied in Christian scriptures.
• Modern Surviving Remains: The Temple building itself was entirely lost. However, the colossal retaining walls Herod built to support the Temple Mount esplanade survived. The most famous and holiest remaining section of this structure is the Western Wall (or Wailing Wall) in Jerusalem, which continues to be a sacred site of prayer for the Jewish people. 

But Jesus said to the disciples, “Not one stone will be left on another”. The disciples  would never have expected such  a prediction of the destruction of God’s holy temple. The Babylonians destroyed it in 586 BC. The Jews rebuilt it, although not as grandeur as Solomon’s first temple, in 516 BC on the first return from Babylonian captivity. Herod then made it a beautiful structure by the time of Jesus. 

The disciples then asked a question with two parts.” 1) When will that happen? 2) What will be the sign of Christ’s coming and the end of the age. They had heard Jesus predict that he would come back within that generation (Matthew 10:23; 16:27,28). They assumed that the 2nd coming would bring about the end of the Jewish Age and usher in the beginning of the Messianic Age. The prediction of the destruction of the temple had to confound and disturb. Maybe they are thinking that Christ will return, destroy the temple, rebuild a 3rd temple, which is what a lot of Christians think today. 

AI: “In Matthew 24:3, the disciples asked Jesus about the “end of the age”. To the 1st-century Jewish mind, this was not the end of the physical planet, but the end of the Old Covenant era—the age dominated by the Jerusalem Temple and Roman oppression. They expected the Messiah to trigger an apocalyptic transition, overthrow the Roman Empire, and establish a permanent, glorious Kingdom of Israel.

Key Jewish expectations regarding the “end of the age” included:

• The Messiah’s Glorious Reign: They expected the Messiah to literally “come” (as inquired in verse 3) to sit on a physical throne, judge the wicked, and restore national sovereignty to Israel.
• The Resurrection and Judgment: Rooted in passages like [Daniel 12:1-13], they anticipated a final resurrection of the dead and a vindication of the righteous.
• The Passing of “This Age”: Jewish theology divided history into two periods: “this present evil age” (characterized by sin, suffering, and foreign domination) and “the age to come” (characterized by righteousness and the visible presence of God).

When Jesus prophesied the destruction of the Temple (v. 2), the disciples naturally assumed this catastrophic judgment would signal the arrival of the Messiah’s kingdom and the dawn of the “age to come”.”

So the disciples are looking for “when” the temple will be destroyed and for the “signs” that would precede the 2nd coming and end of the age. Jesus then names several things that will happen that will not be signs (wars, etc.). He gives a “when” answer in Matthew 24:14 This gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in the whole world as a testimony to all the nations, and then the end will come.”” The preaching of the gospel to the whole Roman Empire would have to happen first and the end of the age would follow right after that. The apostles fulfilled that by 70 AD (Colossians 1:23) when the temple was destroyed. 

Daniel 9:24-27 had predicted the abomination and destruction of the temple in the 70 week prophecy. Daniel 12 also predicted the abomination of desolation to occur at the “end”, the “end time”, and the “end of the age”. That would be where the Jews got the idea of the “end of the age”. Jesus said that the abomination of desolation predicted by Daniel would occur after the gospel was preached to the whole world (Matthew 24:15). When would that be? In Matthew 24:34 Jesus said 34 Truly I say to you, this generation will not pass away until all these things take place.” The Greek word genea in the New Testament always means a 40 year period or the people living in a 40 year period. So the abomination of desolation of the temple had to occur within about 40 years of when Jesus said that. That means that he must be predicting the destruction of the temple by the Romans in 70 AD since he made that prediction in about 30 AD.

Luke 21 describes it differently and adds that Jerusalem itself will be trampled under foot by Gentiles (Romans) and destroyed: 21:20 “But when you see Jerusalem surrounded by armies, then recognize that her desolation is near. 21 Then those who are in Judea must flee to the mountains, and those who are inside the city must leave, and those who are in the country must not enter the city; 22 because these are days of punishment, so that all things which have been written will be fulfilled. 23 Woe to those women who are pregnant, and to those who are nursing babies in those days; for there will be great distress upon the land, and wrath to this people; 24 and they will fall by the edge of the sword, and will be led captive into all the nations; and Jerusalem will be trampled underfoot by the Gentiles until the times of the Gentiles are fulfilled.” But Luke puts the same time limit for the event to happen: 21:32 Truly I say to you, this generation will not pass away until all things take place.” Indeed the Romans did surround Jerusalem and siege it for 5 months before finally breaking through the 3 walls and destroying the city and the temple under Titus. 

Luke also adds, 21: 22 because these are days of punishment, so that all things which have been written will be fulfilled.” All Old Testament prophecies had to be fulfilled by 70 AD, and that would include Daniel’s predictions about the abomination of desolation and the end of the Age. 

Jesus adds a few warnings for the inhabitants of the city to flee hastily to the mountains when they see this sign coming true. He predicted a tribulation of the Jews like had never occurred. That tribulation would happen at the same time as the abomination of desolation. Matthew 21:21 For then there will be a great tribulation, such as has not occurred since the beginning of the world until now, nor ever will again.” Daniel 12:1-2 also predicted this AD 70 tribulation that would occur at the end of the age in 70 AD. Many use this verse to predict a tribulation of Christians at some time in our future, but that is totally incorrect. The tribulation Jesus spoke of occurred in the suffering and killing of Jews by the Romans in the Wars of the Jews (66-70 AD) and In the siege and destruction of the temple in 70 AD. 

Jesus then predicts his 2nd coming that the disciples had asked for a sign of when that would happen (24:3). 24:29 “But immediately after the tribulation of those days the sun will be darkened, and the moon will not give its light, and the stars will fall from the sky, and the powers of the heavens will be shaken. 30 And then the sign of the Son of Man will appear in the sky, and then all the tribes of the earth will mourn, and they will see the Son of Man coming on the clouds of the sky with power and great glory. 31 And He will send forth His angels with a great trumpet blast, and they will gather together His elect from the four winds, from one end of the sky to the other.” Notice that this 2nd coming would occur “immediately after the tribulation”. If the tribulation occurred in 70 AD, then the 2nd coming would be immediately after that, also in 70 AD. Jesus had already predicted that his 2nd coming would be within the lifetime of those he was talking to (Matthew 10:23; 16:27,28) so this prediction agrees with earlier predictions. He even said that some of those he was talking to would still be alive to see his 2nd coming in his kingdom (Matthew 16:28). He said in 24:30 that this 2nd coming would happen within that generation. Jesus had ascended in the clouds (Acts 1:9-11) and two angels told the apostles that he would return in the same way. Matthew 24:30 confirms that he came “on the clouds” in 70 AD. “Every eye will see him”: Revelation 1:7 describes the Second Coming of Jesus, stating: “Behold, he is coming with the clouds, and every eye will see him, even those who pierced him, and all tribes of the earth will wail on account of him.” Matthew 24:30 “they will see” Jesus when he would come in 70 AD at his 2nd coming. Did every eye on the planet see Jesus coming in 70 AD? No, but the first century Jews saw that 70 AD was Jesus coming on the clouds to judge the Jews, especially those who crucified him, who would be killed by the Romans in 70 AD. The bottom line is that Matthew 24:30-34 said that they would see Jesus coming on the clouds at the 2nd coming within that generation, fulfilling the prediction that every eye will see him coming on the clouds.

But what about “the stars will fall from the sky” if this prediction in 70 AD? Did that happen literally in 70 AD. Of course not. But such figurative language was used often in the Old Testament describing judgments of nations. Isaiah 13 uses the same type of figurative language to describe the judgment of Babylon. Isaiah 13:10 “the stars will not flash their light, the sun will be dark when it rises, and the moon will not shed its light”. So the stars falling was fulfilled figuratively in the 2nd coming in 70 AD. Many think that the stars will have to fall literally at some future 2nd coming but that is false. 

In Matthew 24:36-41 Jesus compares this imminent 2nd coming with the judgment of the world in the days of Noah. Just like the wicked before the flood, the wicked Jews would not heed Jesus’ warning about 70 AD. 24:37 For [ab]the coming of the Son of Man will be just like the days of Noah.” This is the same 2nd coming in 70 AD that he had just predicted. Many agree that up to verse 35 is predicting AD 70 but then they say verses 36-41 is predicting a 3rd coming that is still in our future. Where would such a new prediction of a 3rd coming come from since we now have 3 predictions (Matthew 10:23; 16:27,28; 24:30-34) by Jesus that his 2nd coming would be within that generation? Not only that, he says that, just like the flood, “two men will be taken and one left”. So who was “taken” at the flood? It was the wicked taken and the righteous (Noah and his family) that were left. This is totally opposite of what futurists teach will happen at some “rapture” at some future 2nd coming. They say the righteous will be taken and the wicked left, which is the opposite of what Jesus said would happen in 70 AD. Matthew 24 is predicting only one 2nd coming in 70 AD Even Jesus did not know the exact time and date, but he gave the signs to look for so the righteous Jews could escape the city before it was too lat. According to Eusebius, they Jewish Christians in the city did heed Jesus’ warnings and fled to Pella before 70 AD. 

This discussion of Matthew 24 doesn’t deal with every detail, but I hope it does correctly interpret Jesus’ comments. Some say that it does predict AD 70 but that it has a double fulfillment of a 3rd coming in our future, but such double fulfillments would make the original prediction meaningless. The prediction was that the 2nd coming would occur within that generation and that can’t be fulfilled a 2nd time going on 2000 years later. Some use this chapter to predict nothing but a future 2nd coming that is yet to happen, but that is false also. They say that the “generation” in Matthew 24:34 is some future “terminal generation, the last generation before the 2nd coming, instead of the generation living when Jesus spoke this. That is false also. I heard on TV preacher use 24:34 to say that the 2nd coming was imminent at the time he was speaking b/c he said it had to happen “within this generation” of about 40 years, i.e. the period the preacher was living in. If it meant that when the preacher lived, why did it not mean that when Jesus spoke it? 

AI: Associated with Daniel’s prophecies, this is widely viewed as a future, literal event where an ultimate world leader (the Antichrist) desecrates a rebuilt Jewish Temple in Jerusalem.” Of course, for Matthew 24 to be fulfilled in our future, a 3rd temple would have to be built and many expect that to happen.

AI:”Beliefs about a Third Temple on the Temple Mount in Jerusalem are rooted in Jewish eschatology and Christian end-times prophecy. Specific groups hold varying views on its construction:

• Orthodox Judaism: Many believe a literal Third Temple will be built, and animal sacrifices will be reinstituted in the Messianic era. Organizations like the Temple Institute have actively prepared for this by recreating ritual objects and priestly garments. Traditional views dictate that this Temple will be built by the Messiah himself or descend miraculously from heaven. They do not expect this 3rd temple to be defiled or destroyed, as Christians believe, b/c they do not accept Jesus as the true Messiah and therefore reject his teachings in Matthew 24. 
• Evangelical and Dispensational Christians: Many Christians (particularly premillennialists) believe a literal Third Temple must be built in Jerusalem prior to the Second Coming of Jesus Christ. They interpret biblical prophecies as foretelling that the Antichrist will allow the Temple to be built, only to defile it mid-way through a seven-year tribulation period. They believe that 3rd temple will be destroyed. 
• The Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints: Also known as the LDS Church, they believe that a Jewish temple will be built in Jerusalem in the last days, in addition to another temple to be built in Missouri.”

That just amazes me these groups all agree that a 3rd temple will be built but totally disagree on what will happen after that. The orthodox Jews believe that the temple will not be destroyed but will resume animal sacrifices and convert Gentiles to Judaism. They get this from Jeremiah 33:17 For this is what the Lord says: ‘David shall not lack a man to sit on the throne of the house of Israel; 18 and the Levitical priests shall not lack a man before Me to offer burnt offerings, to burn grain offerings, and to prepare sacrifices continually.’” That does sound like what will happen if this was to be fulfilled literally. But if you are a Christian and believe in the New Testament, then you know that is not going to happen. The book of Hebrews clearly states that the animal sacrifices have ceased and we are saved by the blood of Jesus. God would never have us go back to animal sacrifices and Levitical priests like in the Old Covenant. All Christians are priests in the new covenant and not just one tribe of Judah who can’t even prove their genealogy today. So Jeremiah 33:17-18 is fulfilled figuratively and not literally in the new covenant. The sacrifices Christians offer as spiritual priests are praise, thanksgiving, and sharing with others instead of animal sacrifices. 

Then there are the Christians who mistakenly say Matthew 24 is still in our future, that a 3rd temple will be built and destroyed, and that Jesus’ 2nd coming will convert the Gentiles and Jews to Christianity. But they think the nation of Israel is somehow part of this happening so they promote the support of Israel. But God said that he was taking the kingdom from Israel and giving it to the spiritual kingdom, the church (Matthew 21:43). God wants all Jews to be saved by belief in Jesus but he is through with Israel as a nation. Strange bedfellows, the Jews and the Christians. Raising money together to build a 3rd temple but totally different plans for that temple and two totally different plans of salvation (one with Jesus and one with a future Messiah to come). Of course the Mormons have their cultish believe in two temples, one in Jerusalem and one in Missouri (why not Utah?) 

Let’s thrown in another kink. AI: “Shia Muslims do not believe that Jesus will rebuild the Jewish temple but they do believe that Jesus is coming back with the Imam Madhi. In Shia eschatology, the primary goal of Jesus’s return is to support the Imam Mahdi (the twelfth, hidden Shia Imam) in establishing global justice and to unite believers under Islam.

Key aspects of these beliefs include:

• The Role of Jesus: Jesus (known as Isa in Islam) is a highly revered prophet and the Messiah. Upon his return, he is expected to pray behind Imam Mahdi, demonstrating the finality of Prophet Muhammad’s message and the leadership of the Imam.
• Focus on Existing Holy Sites: Rather than building a new Jewish temple, the returned Jesus and Imam Mahdi are focused on defeating evil and restoring righteous rule and the conversion of all peoples and religions other Islam. The site of the former Jewish temple in Jerusalem is currently home to the Al-Aqsa Mosque and the Dome of the Rock, which are deeply sacred in Islam.
• Islamic Prophecy: According to traditional Islamic sources, Jesus will fulfill his role by correcting misunderstandings about his life, confirming his status as a messenger, and guiding Christians and Jews to recognize the truth of Islam. He will tell Christians that they have been misled into believing that Jesus was the Son of God when he was just another prophet, not even the last prophet (Muhammed was the last prophet). Muhammed was very clear in the Koran that God did not have a Son and that the Christians had been deceived to believe that Jesus was the Son of God. 

A friend and fellow believer asked me to do a blog article on the same sex issue, so here it is. She commented that the LGBTQ advocates keep talking about the mistranslation of words that supposedly condemn homosexuality. There are two of Paul’s passages that conservatives say condemn homosexuality. 1 Corinthians 6:’⁹ Or do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived; neither the sexually immoral, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor homosexuals (arsenokoites: Homosexual, sodomite, a male who lies with a male as with a female. Thayer’s Greek Lexicon),  ¹⁰ nor thieves, nor the greedy, nor those habitually drunk, nor verbal abusers, nor swindlers, will inherit the kingdom of God.” 1 Timothy 1:⁹ realizing the fact that law is not made for a righteous person but for those who are lawless and rebellious, for the ungodly and sinners, for the unholy and worldly, for those who kill their fathers or mothers, for murderers, ¹⁰ for the sexually immoral, homosexuals (arsenokoites: Homosexual, sodomite), slave traders, liars, perjurers, and whatever else is contrary to sound teaching.”

In all openness, here is the pro LGBTQ argument that Paul is not condemning homosexuality, but instead certain typed of deviant sexual behavior. Their argument is based on what they say the original meaning of the Greek word Arsenokoitai (ἀρσενοκοῖται) was.

LGBTQ supporters and progressive theologians argue that New Testament Greek words historically translated as “homosexual” actually condemned exploitative practices like pederasty, temple prostitution, or abusive sexual acts rather than consensual same-sex relationships. This historical debate centers heavily on the word Arsenokoitai found in the writings of the Apostle Paul (in 1 Corinthians 6:9,10 and 1 Timothy 1:9-10).

1. Arsenokoitai (ἀρσενοκοῖται)

• Literal Meaning: A compound of arsen (male) and koite (bed/sex), literally meaning “men who lie with a male”.
• LGBTQ Perspective: Scholars argue this term is a Jewish-Greek adaptation of Leviticus prohibition language (Greek Septuagint). They contend it originally referred to specific abusive acts like pederasty (relations between older men and young boys), male prostitution, or economic exploitation, rather than a modern, loving gay relationship.
• Historical Note: Critics of the traditional translation frequently cite the 1946 release of the Revised Standard Version (RSV) as the first major Bible translation to use the word “homosexual” for arsenokoitai, a term that did not exist in the English language until the late 19th century. Prior to 1946, it was often translated as “abusers of themselves with mankind,” “sodomites,” or “boy molesters”.

3. The Overall Consensus
While conservative theologians and certain translation committees maintain that the original Greek terms broadly encompass all same-sex sexual activity, many scholars agree that the cultural, ethical, and historical context of the ancient world is fundamentally different from modern understandings of LGBTQ identities and marriage. Determining the exact original intent of these words remains an active area of linguistic and historical research.”

I am not a Greek scholar. I rely on Thayer’s Greek Lexicon to tell me what the word originally meant, and Thayer’s says that it meant “homosexual; a male who lies with a male as with a female”. But let’s suppose we can’t be sure about what it meant in the first century. Is there any other way to determine if Paul is saying that homosexuality is a sin? Yes. The answer to that is found in Romans 1:²⁶ For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature: ²⁷ And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet.” To me, this is clear. There are no Greek words to quibble over. There is nothing in this text about the forbidden sin being men with boys: this is men with men, women with women. How can advocate of homosexuality argue around this? So how do pro homosexual advocates explain this text? AI: “Homosexual advocates and affirming theologians interpret Romans 1:26–27 as a condemnation of unrestrained lust, pagan idolatry, and exploitative practices (like adult men having sex with boys) rather than a universal prohibition against loving, monogamous same-sex relationships.” I’m sorry but that explanation is putting a twist on the text that is just not there. Again, Paul clearly condemns sex between men with men and women with women. Paul calls this homosexual relations “changes the natural use into that which is against nature”. I know that the pro homosexuality advocates will say “there are many examples in nature of what looks like homosexual activity”. That might be true, but “in nature, reproduction strictly requires both male (sperm) and female (egg) genetic contributions. Because standard homosexual sex cannot produce both types of gametes, two males or two females cannot naturally bear offspring together” (AI). So what is the natural use of the sex organs that God created males and females with? So what is the God given model for sexual relations? A man with a woman. I mean you only have to look at the sex organs of a male and a female to figure that out! The male sex organ fits into the female sex organ. That is nature as God designed it. That is why God designed marriage in Genesis 2:²⁴ For this reason a man shall leave his father and his mother, and be joined to his wife; and they shall become one flesh.” What does “become one flesh” mean? 1 Corinthians 6 says that is sex between two people. 6:¹⁶ Or do you not know that the one who joins himself to a prostitute is one body with her? For He says, “The two shall become one flesh.” (quoting Genesis 2:24).

Often the conservatives will quote the Old Testament condemnation of homosexuality. Leviticus 18:22: “You shall not lie with a male as with a woman; it is an abomination.” Leviticus 20:13: “If a man lies with a male as with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination; they shall be put to death, their blood is upon them.” But many argue that these verses target specific ancient practices—such as cultic prostitution, pederasty, or violations of societal honor—rather than modern, loving same-sex relationships. I’m sorry, but again: ” a man lies with a man as with a woman” looks pretty clear to condemn homosexuality. But then the homosexual advocates make this argument: passages like Leviticus 19:19 say that it is condemned to wear a garment of two kinds of material mixed together (like my polyester/cotton shirt), and yet Christians don’t believe that we have to obey that under the new covenant. They argue, “why would you enforce the law against homosexuality and not enforce the law about a mixed material garment? They argue that conservatives just pick and choose which verses in the Old Testament are binding on us today. I feel that there is a big difference between not wearing a shirt with mixed material and men having sex with men. But for the sake of argument, we don’t need the old covenant Law of Moses condemnation of homosexuality to argue that homosexuality is a sin. Romans 1:26-27 is sufficient.

Isn’t Romans 1:26-27 clearly condemning homosexuality? Does’t Paul clearly call homosexuality “degrading passions” (1:26), and “depraved minds” (1:28)? Paul is saying that homosexuality was maybe the final depraved sin that caused God to give the Gentiles over to their degrading pasions. Adultery (sexual immorality where marriage is involved) is wrong. Fornication (sexual immorality where marriage is not involved) is wrong. But homosexual sex is crossing a bigger more serious line. It shows that not just the passions are degraded but the mind is degraded b/c it says that homosexuality is not even a sin. That’s where our cultrue is today!

I hope this article has been a fair discussion, even giving the opposing views on homosexuality. The last debate might be over whether Paul was speaking by inspiration the words of God through the Holy Spirit or was he jsut expressing his homophobic opinions on the matter. In other words, do we have to obey what Paul wrote in Romans 1:26-27 even if we conclude that he is condemning homosexuality? Paul has been recognized as an apostle by Christians, churches, and church fathers since the first century. One of the requirements to be an apostle was to have seen the resurrected Jesus (Acts 1:21-22) and Paul saw the resurrected Jesus on the road to Damascus to imprison Jewish Christians (Acts 9). Seeing the resurrected Jesus is the only thing that could have changed Paul from being a persecutor of Christans to an apostle to the Gentiles who was martyred for his testimony of the resurrection. He had nothing to gain by becoming an apostle; instead, he lost everything he had in Judaism. Paul said in 2 Corinthians 12:¹² The distinguishing marks of a true apostle were performed among you (by me, Paul) with all perseverance, by signs, wonders, and miracles.” Apparently all the churches accepted Paul as a true apostle. Not one of the original 12 apostles, but a true apostle to the Gentiles. Some Jewish Christians tried to discredit his apostleship, but he defended his apostleship quite well. Then there is the affirmation of the apostle Peter. Surely all Christians believe that Peter was a true apostle (some even think he was the first Pope). Read what Peter said about Paul’s writings in 2 Peter 3:15 just as also our beloved brother Paul, according to the wisdom given him, wrote to you, ¹⁶ as also in all his letters, speaking in them of these things, in which there are some things that are hard to understand, which the untaught and unstable distort, as they do also the rest of the Scriptures, to their own destruction.” Notice that Peter is saying that Paul’s letters are Scripture. That’s the word used many times of the old testament inspired writings. Peter is putting the letters of Paul on the same authority as old testament scripture. So if someon accepts Peter as an apostle, which most everyone does, then they should accept Paul’s letters as inspirred by the Spirit.

I thnk that wraps it up. Thanks for reading. I hope the arguments are clear and logical. I hope they are truth.

The question is simple: Did Jesus come the first time to set up a physical kingdom on earth? Many believe that he did. So when the Jewish leaders and most of the Jews rejected him as the Messiah, “they” say that he postponed the establishment of a physical kingdom until his 2nd coming. “They” say that, as a result of this postponement, he established the church as a “backup plan”, a “substitute”, a “stop-gap measure” until his 2nd coming when he will set up that physical kingdom. The church age is seen in this view as a “parenthesis” between the 1st and 2nd coming, but not what Jesus planned to set up to begin with.

The Bible teaches that Jesus did not come the 1st time to set up a physical kingdom. John 18:³⁶ Jesus answered, “My kingdom is not of this world. If My kingdom were of this world, My servants would be fighting so that I would not be handed over to the Jews; but as it is, My kingdom is not of this realm.” This statement by Jesus destroys the idea of Jesus setting up a physical kingdom at his 1st or 2nd coming. It refutes the idea of a postponed physical kingdom. Period.

So did Jesus set up a kingdom in the 1st century? Yes. Jesus predicted that the establishment of his kingdom was “near”. Mark 1:¹⁴ Now after John was taken into custody, Jesus came into Galilee, preaching the gospel of God, ¹⁵ and saying, “The time is fulfilled, and the kingdom of God has come near; repent and believe in the gospel.” The Greek word for “near” is eggizó: To draw near, to approach, to come near. It occurs 14 times in the Greek perfect tense (indicative mood) in the NT which expresses “extreme closeness, immediate imminence, whether in distance (as Jesus came “near” to Jerusalem) or time (the Passover was “near”). If Jesus did not set up his kingdom within the next soon after making this prediction, then he is a false prophet.

So if he did set up his kingdom soon in the first century, did he set up a physical kingdom? Of course not. Did he plan to set up a physical kingdom but postponed it? Nowhere does Jesus or the New Testament writers teach that. So if he did set up his kingdom in the first century and if it wasn’t a physical kingdom, then what type of kingdom did he set up. He set up a spiritual kingdom, the church. That is why the church is synonymous with the kingdom in Matthew 16:¹⁸ And I also say to you that you are Peter, and upon this rock I will build My church; and the gates of Hades will not overpower it. ¹⁹ I will give you the keys of the kingdom of heaven; and whatever you bind on earth shall have been bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth shall have been loosed in heaven.” When did Peter use those “keys” to open up the door into the kingdom of Jesus? In Acts 2 Peter preached the completed plan of the death, burial, and resurrection of Jesus to those who crucified Jesus. He told them to repent and be baptized for the remission of sins (2:38). 3,000 people obeyed Peter’s message and were saved that day. Acts 2:47 And the Lord was adding to their number day by day those who were being saved.” The church is the spiritual body of Jesus of which he is the head. It consists of all who have been saved by Jesus. Acts 2 is the record of the establishment of the church. Notice the connection with the kingdom: when Peter used those gospel “keys” in Acts 2, he opened the door into the kingdom, a spiritual kingdom, the church. The saved are in Jesus’ kingdom. Colossians 1:¹³ For He rescued us from the domain of darkness, and transferred us to the kingdom of His beloved Son, ¹⁴ in whom we have redemption, the forgiveness of sins.” Revelation 1:5 To Him who loves us and released us from our sins by His blood— ⁶ and He made us into a kingdom, priests to His God and Father—to Him be the glory and the dominion forever and ever. Amen.

The church was not a substitute for a failed physical kingdom set up. It was a spiritual kingdom that God and Jesus planned to set up all along. In Ephesians 3 the apostle Paul said that he and the other apostles revealed God’s mystery plan of salvation, i.e. how God united Jew and Gentile believers into one body, the church. He added, Ephesians 3:⁸ To me, the very least of all saints, this grace was given, to preach to the Gentiles the unfathomable riches of Christ, ⁹ and to enlighten all people as to what the plan of the mystery is which for ages has been hidden in God, who created all things; ¹⁰ so that the multifaceted wisdom of God might now be made known through the church to the rulers and the authorities in the heavenly places. ¹¹ This was in accordance with the eternal purpose which He carried out in Christ Jesus our Lord.” The church was part of God’s eternal plan of salvation and the means of spreading that message. It was not an “after-thought” or “unplanned substitute” for a failed physical kingdom plan.

So why does this matter? It matters because putting emphasis on a future physical kingdom takes away from the value of the church as part of God’s eternal plan. God is to be glorified in this spiritual body, the church. Ephesians 3:²¹ to Him be the glory in the church and in Christ Jesus to all generations forever and ever. Amen.” The value of the church is minimized if it is not the “real thing” but a substitute for the real thing that will only come later at the 2nd coming. My kids are notorious for telling me on my birthday, “here is a little gift but the main gift is in the mail to be given to you later”. That minimizes the value of the little gift.

It is important to clarify what the church is. As stated, it is simply the saved of all nations all over the world. God is glorified when sinners are saved by the gospel and are added to Jesus’ church. Those saved then follow Acts 2:⁴² They were continually devoting themselves to the apostles’ teaching and to fellowship, to the breaking of bread and to prayer.” In the first century, they did this in house churches. In persecuted countries like China, they still do it in house churches. God is glorified in those house churches as believers of all races come together to live for Jesus and spread the gospel to others. The confusion comes in when we ask, “is God glorified by all that is done in the name of “church” today”? Unfortunately not. To begin with, any church today that does not support and teach the basic truths of God’s word is not glorifying God. Paul said, 1 Timothy 3:¹⁴ I am writing these things to you, hoping to come to you before long; ¹⁵ but in case I am delayed, I write so that you will know how one should act in the household of God, which is the church of the living God, the pillar and support of the truth.” The LGBTQ supporting churches are not glorifying God, but their own false teaching. The churches that deny the deity, virgin birth, and miracles of Jesus (the Unitarian Universalists, the Jehovah’s Witnesses, the United Churches of Christ, the liberal wings of the Episcopal and other Protestant churches) are not glorifying God. The Roman Catholic Church was not glorifying God when it set up its empire. AI: “From an institutional and historical standpoint, the Roman Catholic Church functioned as both a spiritual entity and a physical, temporal kingdom. Over centuries, this fusion of worldly power and religious authority led to documented periods of systemic corruption, financial excess, and political manipulation.” Even the doctrinally conservative churches that spend 80% of contributions on staff and buildings are not honoring how God would want money donated in the name of Jesus to be spent. It is the “church business” that gets the honor with their beautiful, comfortable buildings and paid preachers that draw in members. Sure, they still do a lot of good but are they really honoring God’s wishes on spending his money? Are they setting up what Jesus wanted or are they setting up church businesses that glorify their own denominations and churches?

In conclusion, Jesus will not establish a physical kingdom at his 2nd coming. That was never his plan and will not be part of some future eschatological plan. All the churches and their preachers who put emphasis on a future physical kingdom (and the role of Israel in that kingdom) are distracting people from the here-and-now spiritual work of the true church. It’s like saying, “what we have in the church is not the real thing”. Much money and time is spent promoting pre-millennial and dispensational views of how that physical kingdom will be set up, all of which are false teaching if Jesus never intends to set up a physical kingdom. One last thought: if full preterism is true, then the 2nd coming happened in 70 AD and there is no future coming back of Jesus (I wrote many articles on that in my blog if you care to research that). If there is no future coming of Jesus, then obviously there is no future establishment of a physical kingdom.

The Bible contains numerous verses where God promises and describes the “promised land” of Israel as a place of ultimate security, physical abundance, and rest. Deuteronomy 33:28 “So Israel lives in security, The fountain of Jacob secluded, In a land of grain and new wine; His heavens also drip down dew. Deuteronomy 12:10: “But you will cross the Jordan and settle in the land the Lord your God is giving you as an inheritance, and he will give you rest from all your enemies around you so that you will live in safety.” Deuteronomy 8:7-9: “For the Lord your God is bringing you into a good land—a land with brooks, streams, and deep springs gushing out into the valleys and hills; a land with wheat and barley, vines and fig trees, pomegranates, olive oil and honey; a land where bread will not be scarce and you will lack nothing. Leviticus 26:6: “I will grant peace in the land, and you will lie down and no one will make you afraid. I will remove wild beasts from the land, and the sword will not pass through your country.”

Notice the key words for what was promised Israel in the promised land of Canaan: security, rest, safety, peace, abundance. Those promises to Israel were conditional: they would lose all of them and the land if they disobeyed God. For example, God sent the Babylonians to remove Judah from the promised land for 70 years as a result of Judah’s continued sins.

The prophets anticipated Israel losing the land but then being restored to dwell in the land when the Messiah would come. Jeremiah 30:³ For behold, days are coming,’ declares the Lord, ‘when I will restore the fortunes of My people Israel and Judah.’ The Lord says, ‘I will also bring them back to the land that I gave to their forefathers, and they shall take possession of it.’” We know that promise would be fulfilled when the Messiah would come. 30:9  But they shall serve the Lord their God and David their king, whom I will raise up for them.” Anytime the prophets predicted a time when David would be the king of Israel, it is always figurative representing Jesus. When would that happen? 30:24 In the latter days you will understand this.” The phrase “the latter years” or “last days” predicted by the prophets always referred to the last days of the Jewish Age (from 30-70 AD). So Israel would be restored to their land before the end of the “latter years”, i.e. before 70 AD.

Another similar prediction: Ezekiel 36:²⁴ For I will take you from the nations, and gather you from all the lands; and I will bring you into your own land.” When would that one be fulfilled? 36:²⁷ And I will put My Spirit within you and bring it about that you walk in My statutes, and are careful and follow My ordinances. ²⁸ And you will live in the land that I gave to your forefathers; so you will be My people, and I will be your God.” It would be fulfilled when God would pour out His Spirit on Israel. That was, again, in the last days of the Jewish Age beginning in Acts 2 when Joel’s prophecy of pouring out the Spirit on all believers in Jesus began to be fulfilled. The pouring out of the Spirit would continue throughout the 40 year last days from 30-70 AD. Anytime the prophets predicted the pouring out of the Spirit on Israel it always was predicting the pouring out of the miraculous in the last days of the Jewish Age from 30 to 70 AD. For example, Joel 2:38-32; Isaiah 44:3; Ezekiel 39:29. So the promise to bring Israel back to their land in Ezekiel 36:24 had to be fulfilled by 70 AD during the days of the pouring out of the miraculous Spirit on believers.

Another one: Ezekiel 37 and the valley of dry bones that come to life when God pours out His Spirit on them. Ezekiel 37:¹² Therefore prophesy and say to them, ‘This is what the Lord God says: “Behold, I am going to open your graves and cause you to come up out of your graves, My people; and I will bring you into the land of Israel. ¹³ Then you will know that I am the Lord, when I have opened your graves and caused you to come up out of your graves, My people. ¹⁴ And I will put My Spirit within you and you will come to life, and I will place you on your own land. Then you will know that I, the Lord, have spoken and done it,” declares the Lord.’” Again, Israel would be placed on their land when God would put His Spirit on them, which would be fulfilled in the last days. Ezekiel 37 ends with another “David will be their king” passage, which again as in Jeremiah 30:9 refers to Jesus. Ezekiel 37:²⁴ “And My servant David will be king over them, and they will all have one shepherd; and they will walk in My ordinances, and keep My statutes and follow them. ²⁵ And they will live on the land that I gave to My servant Jacob, in which your fathers lived; and they will live on it, they, and their sons and their sons’ sons, forever; and My servant David will be their leader forever. ²⁶ And I will make a covenant of peace with them; it will be an everlasting covenant with them. And I will place them (i.e. place them on their land, 37:14) and multiply them, and set My sanctuary in their midst forever. ²⁷ My dwelling place also will be among them; and I will be their God, and they will be My people. ²⁸ And the nations will know that I am the Lord who sanctifies Israel, when My sanctuary is in their midst forever.”’”

Notice how all these predictions end with “I will be their God and they will be My people”. Ezekiel 37 adds a new prediction that God would set His sanctuary in their midst forever. Or Ezekiel 43:7“This is the place of my throne and the place of the soles of my feet, where I will dwell in the midst of the people of Israel forever.” The Hebrew word for sanctuary is miqdash or miqqedash: Sanctuary, holy place. It was used of the tabernacle in the wilderness and of the temple built by Solomon later. It was figuratively where God dwelt in the Holy of Holies although technically God dwells everywhere! The New Testament Greek equivalent of that word is naos: Temple, sanctuary and is used often of the 2nd temple that was still standing in Jerusalem when the New Testament books were written. This is the Greek word used twice in Revelation 21:²² I saw no temple (i.e. no physical temple) in it (i.e. in the New Jerusalem, the bride of Christ, the spiritual temple, the church), for the Lord God the Almighty and the Lamb are its temple (i.e. the dwelling of God in believers through the Holy Spirit makes them the new covenant spiritual temple). Paul says that the Spirit dwells in believers making them the temple of God, the dwelling place of God: 1 Corinthians 3:16 Do you not know that you are a temple of God (also 1 Corinthians 6:19). Another Greek equivalent for the Hebrew sanctuary is skéné: Tent, Tabernacle, Dwelling. That is the word used in Revelation 21:³ And I heard a loud voice from the throne, saying, “Behold, the tabernacle (skene) of God is among the people, and He will dwell (skenoo) among them, and they shall be His people, and God Himself will be among them. The Greek word for “dwell” is skénoó: To dwell, to tabernacle, to pitch a tent (derived from the word skene). That is the word for “dwell” in Revelation 21:3. It is the same word used in John 1:¹⁴ And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us.” Of course that refers to the Word Jesus making his dwelling or tabernacling among men for 30 years.

Technically, the tabernacle where God dwells is in heaven. That is where Jesus went into the Holy of Holies in heaven into the presence of the Father to offer His blood as the sacrifice for sins. Hebrews 8:1 Now the main point in what has been said is this: we have such a high priest, who has taken His seat at the right hand of the throne of the Majesty in the heavens, ² a minister in the sanctuary and in the true tabernacle, which the Lord set up, not man.” The old tabernacle was a type of the real true tabernacle where God dwelt in heaven. Revelation 11:¹⁹ And the temple of God which is in heaven was opened; and the ark of His covenant appeared in His temple. Revelation 15:⁵ After these things I looked, and the temple of the tabernacle of testimony in heaven was opened,” So the true tabernacle or temple of God is in heaven where He dwells, but He set up a siritual temple or tabernacle or sanctuary on earth in the church where He dwells figuratively in believers.

The last Old Testament prediction of Israel being restored to their land is Amos 9:14 I will also restore the fortunes of My people Israel, and they will rebuild the desolated cities and live in them; They will also plant vineyards and drink their wine, and make gardens and eat their fruit. ¹⁵ I will also plant them on their land, and they will not be uprooted again from their land which I have given them,”says the Lord your God.” We know this was fulfilled by the time the Jerusalem conference met in Acts 15. Amos 9:11 also predicted, ““On that day I will raise up the fallen shelter of David.” In Acts 15:14-16 James says that the fallen tabernacle of David prophesy had been fulfilled by the time he spoke, allowing the Gentiles to enter the church. That would mean that Amos 9:14-15 had been fulfilled.

So my belief is that all the Old Testament prediction of Israel being restored to the land had been fulfilled in the first century by 70 AD. But Israel did not receive the promised land literally when the Messiah Jesus came. A million wicked Jews who rejected Jesus as the Messiah were killed by the Romans in 70 AD when they destroyed the temple and Jerusalem. So the predictions were not fulfilled literally by 70 AD, but they were fulfilled figuratively. How so? Again, notice the key words for what was promised Israel in the promised land of Canaan: security, rest, safety, peace, abundance. The believing remnant of the Jewish nation did receive a spiritual kingdom of security, rest, peace, spiritual blessings. The question might be, “Where did the Jewish church dwell?” What is this spiritual, figurative land that they received in the first century? In John 10 Jesus said, “²⁷ My sheep listen to My voice, and I know them, and they follow Me; ²⁸ and I give them eternal life, and they will never perish; and no one will snatch them out of My hand. ²⁹ My Father, who has given them to Me, is greater than all; and no one is able to snatch them out of the Father’s hand. ³⁰ I and the Father are one.” The believing remnant found peace, security, rest and spiritual blessings dwelling figuratively in the hands of Jesus and the Father.

A key in this discussion is recognizing that the prophets predicted that the believing remnant would get the land, and not the whole nation. The majority of the nation recieved judgment and death in 70 AD. Romans 9-11 deals with this issue. Paul argues that it might look like God did not fulfill His promises to Israel, but that He did fulfill all HIs promises. But the caveat was that he only made those Messianic spiritual promises to the remnant who would accept Jesus and not to the whole nation. Those Old Testament promises and predictions symbolized the Kingdom of God, spiritual rest, and the ultimate reward of eternal life.

So, in conclusion, the Old Testament predictions of Israel being restored to their land was not fulfilled, as many teach today, in1948 AD when the U.N. gave Israel statehood and a large portion of Palestine. There was no event that happened past 70 AD that fulfilled those predictions.

I close with a quote from Alex Polyak who has a great website called thebiblefulfilled.com (I highly recommend you go to that site and read his articles and watch his videos. “This video takes a deep dive into the biblical land promise to Abraham and shows from Scripture how that promise was already fulfilled in Israel’s history (Joshua 21:43-45 says that under Joshua’ leadership the Isreeal received “all the land God had promised them”) and ultimately completed in Jesus Christ. Many Christians today believe the modern return to Palestine in 1948 and future expansion of Israel’s borders are prophetic fulfillments—but the Bible itself tells a different story. By examining key passages from Genesis, Joshua, Nehemiah, Hebrews, and the New Testament, this teaching explains how Israel did receive the physical land (i.e. under Joshua), how that land served as a type and shadow, and how Christ brought believers into the true promised land—the heavenly Jerusalem and the spiritual rest promised to Abraham’s seed.”

I had a thought that encouraged me this morn. I’m on our back porch listening to some acapella praise songs and starting my prayer time. I’m looking out over a patio down the steps from the porch. On the back line of our lot here is a solid row of very tall evergreens that hide the houses behind our lot, so it feels a little like nature even though it is in a suburban subdivision. Above the evergreens I see the sky which is cloudy this morning with a slight chance for rain later today. I always start my prayer time picturing the throne scenes in Revelation 4 and 5. First, the angels and 4 living creatures are praising the Father on the throne. Then Jesus, the Lamb standing as if slain, appears at the right hand of the Father and the praise is directed toward the Son. The scene closes with praise for both the Father and the Son on the throne.

As I begin my prayer with those images, another image comes to mind. I can see the face of Jesus in those clouds above the evergreens. I don’t know what form Jesus has taken since he ascended to the Father’s right hand after the resurrection. But I assume that He can take any form He wants and appear to people today. Many converted Muslims claim to have seen Jesus as part of their conversion. How can I doubt that? So I see Jesus’ face in the clouds and he looks at me. He knows all the little secrets I am hiding from people. I can open up and confess those things, which is humbling, and ask forgiveness. That’s kinda like when Jesus was on trial in the high priest’s palace and Peter is outside warming up by the fire, denying 3 times that he even knows Jesus. Luke 22:61 In this verse, right after Peter denies Jesus for the third time and the rooster crows, the Bible notes: “The Lord turned and looked straight at Peter”. This gaze caused Peter to remember Jesus’ prophecy that he would deny Him three times, prompting Peter to leave the courtyard and weep bitterly. Only Luke records that and he got that from some eyewitness (Luke 1:1-4). I wonder who he got that very private information from. Luke wrote his gospel probably late 50’s AD, so maybe he got it from Peter who died in the mid 60’s. It is interesting that neither Matthew nor Mark record that moment. The critics say that Luke and Matthew copied a lot of their gospels from Mark, but here is something that Luke has that is not in Mark, which makes us think Luke did not copy from Mark. He did his own investigative reporting.

But as I look at the face of Jesus staring at me, it makes me think about what happened after He looked at Peter. Jesus would go from the high priest to Pilate and be crucified by 9 AM that morning. So the face of Jesus then fades off onto a cross in the back corner of our lot. I see him suffering and dying for my sins and it helps me focus on the things that really matter today as I go about my business and pleasure. But wait, another image appears in the sky while Jesus is on that cross on the back corner of my lot. It is the face of a white haired, ancient looking father figure, the Father. He looks at me, and then he looks at his Son Jesus on the cross, and then He looks back at me. I can see His tears of love for His Son and for me. I get the sense that He is telling me that He loves me and is in control and that I need to quit worrying about things all the time, that I need to trust Him, to “let go and let God”.

One last image this morning on my porch. I am kinda making up and adding a few images but the ones about the face of Jesus and the face of the Father were real to me this morning. One last image that I add is Jesus being taken off that cross, buried on the opposite corner in the back of the lot, and then I imagine Him being raised from the dead and ascending to the Father. So my images end with the face of the ascended Jesus looking at me now, which was the very first image I saw this morning, telling me to go find someone to love, to help, to share His story with. So that is what I am going to try to do.

I hope this helps you see the face of the Father and Son in your prayer life. Too often we just say words, even praise, but don’t see anything. It helps to see the Father and Son.

I realize that my Bible interpretation of prophecies relies heavily on the “time statements”, such as “near”, “at. hand”, “soon”, mellot (“about to be “), etc. These time statements are made about the kingdom (the kingdom is “at hand” Mark 1:15), the 2nd coming of Jesus (James 5:8 the coming of the Lord is “near”), the “end of all things” is “at hand” (1 Peter 4:7), the events predicted in Revelation that included the coming of Jesus in the clouds in Revelation 1:7; 22:12,20) that will happen “soon” or “near (Revelation 1:1-3; 22:6-11), the 2nd coming that was “about to be” (mello, Matthew 16:27: Jesus even said that some of those listening to him would still be alive when that would happen), the destruction of the temple and the 2nd coming of Jesus would happen within the lifetime of that generation (Matthew 24:15,30-34). Another critical time limiting fulfillment passage is Luke 21:22 where Jesus said that all Old Testament Scripture would be fulfilled within that generation (Luke 21:32).

A common rebuttal is that “soon” could be soon in God’s time frame, which could be thousands of years or more. Often 2 Peter 3:8 “with the Lord a day is like a thousand years” is used to support that rebuttal. Or maybe even someone says, “soon” could be figurative. Of course, if that rebuttal is valid, then all of my interpretations of prophecies is not valid and scholars are free to understand the fulfillment of prophecies to be thousands of years after the first century. So how do I answer that rebuttal?

AI gives 2 very good logical reasons for arguing that the time statements should be taken as imminent in the lifetime of those to whom they were made:

The Audience Expectation or Relevance: Proponents argue that because New Testament authors—such as Paul, John, and Jesus himself—addressed their immediate, contemporary listeners, words denoting time must be read in a plain, human sense rather than as time-delay semantics.
The “This Generation” Debate: This interpretation leans heavily on statements like “this generation will certainly not pass away until all these things have happened” (Matthew 24:34), viewing the prophecies as referring to specific, near-term events like the destruction of the Jerusalem Temple in AD 70.”

Audgience Relevance: Passages like 2 Thessalonians 1 promise relief to Jewish Christians at the 2nd coming, and then 2 Thessalonians 2 goes on to say that the 2nd coming will occur within the lifetime of those reading that letter from Paul. What relevance is that promise if it never happened within their lifetime? Revelation 1:3 gives an urgency for the readers to read, hear, and keep the words of the prophecies in the book b/c “the time is near”. What relevance would that warning have to them if “shortly” could be thousands of years later? Mark 1:15 “Repent for the kingdom of heaven is ‘at hand’.” What was the urgency of repenting? B/c the kingdom was at hand. The coming of the church kingdom that began in Acts 2 in 30 AD with the baptism of 3,00. It would continue as the apostles preached the gospel to the entire Roman Empire from 30-70 AD. Those who repented and accepted Jesus as the Messiah during that transition period would receive eternal life, but those who rejected Him would be judged in 70 AD when the Romans killed one million wicked Jews when they destroyed the temple and the city of Jerusalem. That’s why Peter told those listening in Acts 2:40 “Be saved from this perverse generation.” James Stewart Russell in his book The Parousia keeps trying to get readers to examine every passage in light of audience relevance. What did it mean to those reading? What promises or warnings were specifically tied to the context?

This generation (the Greek word genea): Some want to translate this word as the “Jewish race” and say that Matthew 24:34 is just saying that “the Jewish race would not pass away till the predictions in Matthew 24 would be fulfilled”. But Strong’s says that the word genea means either 1) the period of about 30-33 years or 2) the people living together during that 30-33 years. Matthew 1 demonstrates the meaning of “generations” aa there are 42 generations from Abraham to Jesus, which was about 2,000 years. The word genea is used 43 times in the New Testament, and it always means the people living in a 40 year period or a time period of 40 years. Often he spoke of the “evil and perverse generation” of Jews living in the first century. Matthew 23:³⁶ Truly I say to you, all these things will come upon this generation.” It is just like we use the word “generation” with the baby boomers, the X, or the Z generations. If that isn’t enough proof, Matthew 16:28 Jesus said that some would still be alive when he came in his kingdom (which would have to be the 70 AD 2nd coming). That fits the idea of His 2nd coming within that next 40 years after he made those predictions.

Why did early Christians expect the 2nd coming to happen within their lifetime? James Stewart Russell said in The Parousia that it is obvious to anyone who reads the New Testament with an open mind that the early Christians expected Jesus to return within their lifetime. “Why did they they expect that? B/c Jesus and the apostles told them to expect that!” If Jesus’ 2nd coming did not happen within their lifetime then Jesus was a false prophet, which is exactly what atheist, Muslims, and unbelieving Jews say about Jesus.

Maybe He did predict an imminent 2nd coming but “delayed” it? That is a common teaching among those who will at least admit that Jesus did predict an imminent 2nd coming, but don’t believe that the 2nd coming fulfilled that in 70 AD. They say that he delayed that predicted imminent 2nd coming. In the late first century and 2nd century many Christians living then still thought that Jesus’ delayed 2nd coming would still happen in their lifetime, but that 2nd century 2nd coming did not happen. But there are no passages suggesting a delay in the fulfillment of the prediction of an imminent first century 2nd coming. To the contrary, Hebrews 10:37 refutes any delay in the 2nd coming: “For yet in a very little while, He who is coming will come, and will not delay.” Others say that His teachings were intentionally ambiguous to foster readiness rather than precise date-setting. But his predictions clearly stated a time limitation for the 2nd coming. He did not give a precise date, such as August, 70 AD, but He did set a limit of one generation or 40 years for that 2nd coming to happen. He obviously did not set a precise date b/c people would try to take advantage of that by continuing to live in sin up until 70 AD and then repent right before the precise date. Others try to use 2 Peter 3 to say that Jesus delayed his predicted imminent 2nd coming to give more time for people to repent. 2 Peter 3:⁹ The Lord is not slow about His promise, as some count slowness, but is patient toward you, not willing for any to perish, but for all to come to repentance.” By about 62 AD when 2 Peter 3 was written, some were mocking the predicted imminent 2nd coming had not happened yet. Peter explained that any slowness to fulfill that prediction was to give more people time to repent, but he never said that the 2nd coming would not be within that generation or that Jesus was delaying his prediction. Jesus’ 2nd coming would be about 8 years later in 70 AD which would still make it within their lifetime.

I have taught a lot of math in times past. Suppose I tell my math students, “You need to do your homework and study hard each night b/c you are going to have a test soon.” Isn’t it obvious that soon would be soon in their time frame or else the warning would have no relevance to them? That same logic would apply to the time statements on predicted prophecies in the New Testament. I hope this article shows why time statements must be taken at face value.

The question of whether a passage or prediction should be take literally or figurtively is a challenging one. AI: “Reading the Bible “literal or figurative” refers to how you interpret the words on the page. Literal means taking the text at face value, treating it as straightforward history or fact. Figurative means the text uses word pictures, symbols, or poetry to express a deeper spiritual truth.” This question is especially critical in the interpretation of Biblical prophecies about the future of Israel and the 2nd coming of Jesus. A friend suggested that I go through the Bible and show which passages are literal or figurative, so that is my goal.

The place to start is in the New Testament.

1) THE LUKE 21:22 RULE Luke 21:²⁰ “But when you see Jerusalem surrounded by armies, then recognize that her desolation is near. ²¹ Then those who are in Judea must flee to the mountains, and those who are inside the city must leave, and those who are in the country must not enter the city; ²² because these are days of punishment, so that all things which have been written will be fulfilled. 34 Truly I say to you, this generation will not pass away until all things take place.” Jesus is predicting the destruction of Jerusalem and the temple that would happen in 70 AD. He said it would happen within the generation of those he was speaking to. The Greek word genea always means a period of about 40 years or the people living in a 40 year period (such as we use when we speak of the baby boomers or X or Z generation). Jesus is referring to all things that have been written in the Old Testament since the New Testament had not been written when He said that. This puts a cap on the time limit for fulfillment of all Old Testament predictions. All Old Testament predictions had to be fulfilled by 70 AD. This is a rule that must be followed in interpreting any OT prediction such as the 70th week of Daniel (Daiel 9:24-27). Many say that 70th week prediction is yet to be fulfilled. Jesus in Luke 21:22 said that it had to be fulfilled by 70 AD (which it was b/c the end of the 70th week was the destrution of Jerusalem: Daniel 9:26 the people of the prince who is to come will destroy the city and the sanctuary”). Also the end event of the 70th week was the abomination of desolation of the temple. Jesus said that the events he predicted in Matthew 24 would be the fulfillment of Daniel’s prediction of the abomination of desolation. Matthew 24:¹⁵ “Therefore when you see the abomination of desolation which was spoken of through Daniel the prophet, standing in the holy place—let the reader understand.” He then added that this Daniel abomination of desolation had to happen within that generation he was speaking to. Matthew 24:³⁴ Truly I say to you, this generation will not pass away until all things take place.” Other OT prophecies predicted that Israel would in the future return to live in the Promised Land. Many say that happened in 1948 when Israel was granted statehood in Palestine and given a sigificant portion of the land of Israel by the United Nations. But Jesus said that prophecy had to be fulfilled by 70 AD. So that prediction cannot refer to 1948. You can see how this Luke 21:22 rule given by Jesus can really help determine if an OT predicton is to be taken literally or figuratively.

2) NEW TESTAMENT TIME STATEMENTS In the New Testament, some of the time statements on predictions help determine literal or figurative. For example: Matthew 24:²⁹ “But immediately after the tribulation of those days the sun will be darkened, and the moon will not give its light, and the stars will fall from the sky, and the powers of the heavens will be shaken. ³⁰ And then the sign of the Son of Man will appear in the sky, and then all the tribes of the earth will mourn, and they will see the Son of Man coming on the clouds of the sky with power and great glory. ³⁴ Truly I say to you, this generation will not pass away until all these things take place.” Again, this a parallel to Luke 21 predicting the destructio of Jerusalem in 70 AD. That stars falling from the sky would have to happen within that generation, within the next 40 years. If this is to be taken literally, then Jesus is a false prophet b/c the stars did not literally fall within that generation. But could the passage be interpreted figuratively? Yes. The OT has many such predictions associated with the destruction of nations. Isaiah 13:1 The pronouncement concerning Babylon which Isaiah the son of Amoz saw. 9 Behold, the day of the Lord is coming, cruel, with fury and burning anger, to make the land a desolation; and He will exterminate its sinners from it. ¹⁰ For the stars of heaven and their constellations will not flash their light; The sun will be dark when it rises and the moon will not shed its light.” Isaiah was predicting the destruction of Babylon by the Assyrians in 612 BC. Is he predicting that in 612 BC the stars literally would quit shining and the sun would literally quit giving off light? If so then Isaiah was a false prophet b/c that did not happen in 612 BC. But such language is typical of predictions of the destruction of nations. So it is not surprising that Jesus predicted that the stars would fall by 70 AD. That had to be figurative languge. So what did that mean if it is figurative? AI: “In Old Testament prophecy, cosmic disturbances (darkening of the sun and moon, stars falling) are frequently used as apocalyptic language to describe the collapse of governments, empires, and earthly leaders. Just as the sun and moon provide, “light” and order, rulers and religious authorities provide societal stability. Stars “falling” often symbolize the downfall of kings, political powers, or covenant-breaking nations.” The book of Revelation predicts stars falling several times: Revelation 6:13; 8:10-11; 12:4. Many take that to be some event that has not happened yet and that will happen literally at the 2nd coming in our future. The book of Revelation was about events to happen “soon” after the time of writing. The book was written during the reign of the 6th emperor of Rome (Revelation 17:¹⁰ and they are seven kings; five have fallen (the first 5 emperors of Rome beginning with Julius Caesar had already died at the time of writing), one is (i.e. the emperor reigning at the time of writing: the 6th emperor Nero was reigning at the time of writing). Nero reigned from 54-68 AD so the book had to be written before 68 AD (probably around 63 AD). The theme of the book is the avenging of the blood of the apostles, prophets and Jewish saints (Christians) that was shed by the evil Jewish nation (Revelation 18:²⁰ Rejoice over her, O heaven, and you saints and apostles and prophets, because God has pronounced judgment for you against her (i.e. the spiritual prostitute Jerusalem in chapter 17).” The book is about the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD which would be “soon” after the time of writing. That prediction of the stars falling iin Revelation would have to be figurative as in Matthew 24 or else the apostle John was a false prophet. Bottom line, you can see how some of the time statements in NT predictions help determine literal or figurtive. BTW, these time statements would negte the teaching of some that Matthew 24 had a dual fulfillment: originally in 70 AD and then that event was a type of a final coming of Jesus in our future. Any fulfillment of Matthew 24 had to be within that generation.

3) THE IMMINENT 2ND COMING PREDICTED BY JESUS Another critical consideration in literal or figurative is understanding the time of the 2nd coming of Jesus. Jesus predicted a 2nd coming only 4 times in the synoptics: Matthew 10:23; 16:27-28; 24:29-34; 26:64. All 4 times he predicted his 2nd coming to be within the lifetime of his listeners. Matthew 16:27 even uses the word mello in that prediction: Matthew 16 ²⁷ `For, the Son of Man is about to (mello) come in the glory of his Father, with his messengers, and then he will reward each, according to his work.” (Young’s Literal Translation) The Greek word mello when used in the NT always refers to something that is “about to happen”, either about to happen in time or about to be at a location. Jesus even added: Matthew 26:²⁸ Verily I say to you, there are certain of those standing here who shall not taste of death till they may see the Son of Man coming in his reign.” That’s pretty plain. If here were not some still living when he returned then he is a false prophet! Or that there are some 2,000 year old people still alive today. In all 4 of those predictions Jesus said that his return (or 2nd coming) would be within the lifetime of those he was speaking to. He is a false prophet if he did not return within that generation (Matthew 24:34) as he predicted, which is exactly what the atheists, Jews, and Muslims say that he was. But he did return in that generation in 70 AD in judgment on the Jews, using the Romans to destroy Jerusalem and the temple and kill over a million of the evil Jews (according to Josephus). AD 70 was the 2nd coming of Jesus. There are no other predictions of a return or coming back that would not be within that generation. None. If the 2nd coming is still in our future, don’t you think there would be some verses in the synoptics where Jesus predicted that? Many say, “Yes he predicted an imminent 2nd coming, but he delayed it.” That would be a delay going on 2,000 years now! But nowhere in the NT is there a delay of the 2nd coming. On the contrary: Hebrews 10:37 For yet in a very little while, He who is coming will come, and will not delay.” There is not scriptural basis whatsoever for saying that Jesus delayed his prediction of an imminent 2nd coming.

THE APOSTLES ALSO PREDICTED AN IMMINENT 2ND COMING The apostles also, based on Jesus’ teaching, taught an imminent 2nd coming. James 5:⁷ Therefore be patient, brothers and sisters, until the coming of the Lord. The farmer waits for the precious produce of the soil, being patient about it, until it gets the early and late rains. ⁸ You too be patient; strengthen your hearts, for the coming of the Lord is near.” Notice that this applied directly to those James wrote to. They were suffering at the hands of rich evil Jews and were told to be patient until the 2nd coming when they would get relief when a million evil Jews were killed in 70 AD. That coming, James said, was “near” at the time he wrote. 1 Peter 4:⁷ The end of all things is near.” The end of the physical earth was not near. Either Peter the apsostle was a false prophet or else he is referring to the end of the Jewish system and temple in 70 AD (which he was) in figurative language and not to the end of the world. 1 Corinthians 15:⁵¹ Behold, I am telling you a mystery; we will not all sleep, but we will all be changed, ⁵² in a moment, in the twinkling of an eye, at the last trumpet; for the trumpet will sound, and the dead will be raised imperishable, and we will be changed.” That chapter is about the resurrection. Paul is clearly sayiing that some of those he is writing to would still be alive (“not sleep) when the the righteous are given immortality, and that all the righteous, dead or alive, will be given that immortality. That could only be referring to Jesus’ 2nd coming when as Daniel 12:1-2 predicted, all the dead of the OT who were in hades waiting their final judgment would be raised, some to eternal life, some to eternal destruction. Paul later predicted in Acts 24:¹⁵ having hope toward God, which they themselves also wait for, [that] there is about to be (mello) a rising again of the dead, both of righteous and unrighteous.” (Young’s Literal Translation) I know that sounds heretical to say that the resurrection and 2nd coming happened in 70 AD, but examine all these passages before you charge heresy. It is interesting, however, that most Christians, even those that are not full preterists, believe that we go immediately to be with Jesus when we die, which I believe is true. That means that we can be with Jesus with a spiritual body without ever have our physical body raised from the grave. Why then would we need to ever have our physical body raised to be with Jesus in eternity? Of course, some say that at a future 2nd coming that our bodies will be raised from the grave and that we will be given some kind of eternal physical/spiritual body to live on earth. But if there is no future 2nd coming or resurrection, that that teaching is not Biblical. That also contradicts Paul’s teaching in 1 Corinthians 15 that the readers would be raised with an entirely spiritual not physical body. Finally Revelation predicts an imminent 2nd coming: Revelation 1:1,3  The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave Him to show to His bond-servants, the things which must soon take place…for the time is near. ⁷ Behold, He is coming with the clouds, and every eye will see Him, even those who pierced Him; and all the tribes of the earth will mourn over Him. 22:⁶ And he said to me, “These words are faithful and true”; and the Lord, the God of the spirits of the prophets, sent His angel to show His bond-servants the things which must soon take place. ⁷ “And behold, I am coming quickly. Blessed is the one who keeps the words of the prophecy of this book.” Again, this teaching (which is called “full preterism” and is considered heresy by many) is based on plain, simple interpretation of the words of Jesus and the apostles. To me, it is more heretical to teach that Jesus’ predictions of an imminent 2nd coming did not happen just as he predicted, thus making him a false prophet or just mistaken. C.S.Lewis came to that conclusion, that Jesus was just mistaken in Matthew 10:23.

ROMANS 11:16 SO ALL ISRAEL WILL BE SAVED. So what does that full preterist view of the 2nd coming in 70 AD mean for literal or figurative? If the 2nd coming, the resurrection, and the judgment all occurred in 70 AD (and they did), then that helps interpret eschatological predictions. For example, Romans 11:²⁶ and so all Israel will be saved; just as it is written: “The Deliverer will come from Zion, He will remove ungodliness from Jacob.” ²⁷ “This is My covenant with them, when I take away their sins.” That passage has caused a lot of debate on what “so all Israel will be saved” means. But notice that “all Israel will be saved” when the deliverer (i..e Jesus) comes from Zion, which refers to the 2nd coming. If so, whatever “all Israel will be saved” means had to happen by the 2nd coming. If full preterism is true, and I believe that it is, the 2nd coming was in 70 AD and all Israel had to be saved by 70 AD. Many say it means that at some future 2nd coming that the nation nof Israel will be saved in some way, but that doesn’t fit the timing that it had to happen by 70 AD. What does it mean? Without going into a long discussion or Romans 11, it means that by the 2nd coming in 70 AD all the elect, the Jewish remnant who would accept Jesus as the Messiah, would be gathered. The apostles would have preached the gospel to the entire Roman Empire by 70 AD, converting the elect. Some Jews early on believed in Jesus (3,000 in Acts) but most Jews rejected him. But Romans 11 predicts that some of those Jews who rejected him early on would become jealous of the Gentiles being saved and then would change their disbelief into belief in Jesus before 70 AD and the 2nd coming. Thus over the 40 year period from 30-70 AD the full remnant would be gathered. So “all Israel” in Romans 9:26 is somewhat figurative, referring to spiritual Israel, the elect, the Jewish remnant who believed in Jesus by 70 AD instead of a literal nation of Israel interpretation.

ROMANS 8:18-21 AN IMMINENT GLORIFICATION OF THE SONS OF GOD Similar to this is Romans 8:¹⁸ For I reckon that the sufferings of the present time [are] not worthy [to be compared] with the glory about to be (mello) revealed in us;¹⁹ for the earnest looking out of the creation doth expect the revelation of the sons of God; ²⁰ for to vanity was the creation made subject — not of its will, but because of Him who did subject [it] — in hope, ²¹ that also the creation itself shall be set free from the servitude of the corruption to the liberty of the glory of the children of God.” (Young’s Literal Translation) This is a favorite passage of those who teach that at the 2nd coming the earth will be re-created or renewed into a Garden of Eden restoration. However, notice that whatever Paul is predicting was “about to be” (mello). If Paul is predicting an imminent re-creation of the earth then he was a false prophet b/c that did not happen soon after he wrote Romans. But that is not what he is predicting. He is predicting that at the 2nd coming in 70 AD which was “about to” happen that the true sons of God would be glorified (a constant theme in the NT). Probably they are the “creation” that would be set free from their spiritual corruption and given the liberty from the condemnation of sin. The physical earth being re-created is just not in that passage. So there is some figurative language here but the word mello helps us figure it out. As mentioned before, there are many other eschatological predictions associated with a supposedly still future 2nd coming: the return of Israel to their land, the end of the 70th week of Daniel 9, Gog and Magog invading Israel of Ezekiel 38-39, the battle of Armageddon of Revelation 20, the Great White Throne judgment of Revelation 20, the coming of some Antichrist, extreme natural disasters and celestial disturbances, etc. If the 2nd coming was in 70 AD and there is no”3rd coming” in our future then none of these things will happen in our future. They already happened!!!!!

1 AND 2 THESSALONIANS: THE 2ND COMING That brings us to another key eschatological prediction that is relevant to our literal or figurative discusison. 1 Thessalonians 4:¹³ But we do not want you to be uninformed, brothers and sisters, about those who are asleep, so that you will not grieve as indeed the rest of mankind do, who have no hope. ¹⁴ For if we believe that Jesus died and rose from the dead, so also God will bring with Him those who have fallen asleep through Jesus. ¹⁵ For we say this to you by the word of the Lord, that we who are alive and remain until the coming of the Lord will not precede those who have fallen asleep. ¹⁶ For the Lord Himself will descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel and with the trumpet of God, and the dead in Christ will rise first. ¹⁷ Then we who are alive, who remain, will be caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air, and so we will always be with the Lord. ¹⁸ Therefore, comfort one another with these words.” Is this a prediction of some kind of “rapture” of saints at the 2nd coming as many teach. To begin with, as many have noted, it looks as if Paul expects some of his readers to be alive at the 2nd coming (“that we who are alive and remain until the coming of the Lord “). If so, was Paul mistaken or a false prophet? Before discussing what this passage meant, we need to fast forward to Paul’s 2nd letter to the Thessalonians where he discussed in further detail the 2nd coming. Timothy had taken the 1 Thessalonians letter but returned telling Paul that there was confusing about the 2nd coming that he had mentioned in the first letter, some even saying that the 2nd coming had already happened (2 Thess 2:1-2). He said that the 2nd coming would give relief to the Jewish Christians who were suffering persecution from the Jewish non Christians: 2 Thess 1:⁶ For after all it is only right for God to repay with affliction those who afflict you, ⁷ and to give relief to you who are afflicted, along with us, when the Lord Jesus will be revealed from heaven with His mighty angels. This persecution was menetioned in the 1st letter: 1 Thess 2:¹⁴ For you, brothers and sisters, became imitators of the churches of God in Christ Jesus that are in Judea, for you also endured the same sufferings at the hands of your own countrymen, even as they did from the Jews, ¹⁵ who both killed the Lord Jesus and the prophets, and drove us out. They are not pleasing to God, but hostile to all people, ¹⁶ hindering us from speaking to the Gentiles so that they may be saved; with the result that they always reach the limit of their sins. But wrath has come upon them fully.” This promised relief from their suffering would be meaningless to them if the 2nd coming was not in their lifetime, but it would be of great comfort if the 2nd coming was in 70 AD when Jesus would use the Romans to kill one million of their Jewish enemies. Then in 2 Thess 2, Paul goes on to say that the 2nd coming would not occur until 2 events happened: the apostasy would come and the man of lawlessness who would sit in the temple of God claiming to be God would be revealed. He then says that something or someone is restraining the man of lawlessnes but that the “mystery of lawlessness is already at work” (2 Thess 2:7) wherein the restraint would be removed, allowing the man of lawlessness to be revealed doing his false signs and wonders. That in turn would precede the 2nd coming and destruction of the man of lawlessness (probably the destruction of the demonic power behind the man of lawlessness). But the key here is that “the mystery is already at work” at the time of writing (51 AD). The man of lawlessness would sit in the temple, so the temple had to be still standing when he arose (it would not be standing if the 2nd coming was after 70 AD). The man of lawlessnes was probably Titus who destroyed and desecrated the temple in 70 AD. Paul said that the man of lawlessness was living at the time he wrote the letter and that the 2nd coming would destroy that man in some way. All this means that Paul is saying that the 2nd coming would occur within the lifetime that he was writing the letter. That fits the full preterism view of the 2nd coming.

1 THESSALONIANS 4:13-18 But how does that help us interpret 1 Thessalonians 4:13-18 quoted above? If Paul clearly shows that the 2nd coming will be within their lifetime in 2 Thessalonians 2, which fits 70 AD, then surely 1 Thess 4:13-18 is referring to that same 2nd coming in 70 AD. After all, the 2nd letter is answering some of their confusion about the 1st letter. Most say 1 Thess 4 is predicting some kind of rapture of saints at the 2nd coming, but if the 2nd coming was in 70 AD, that did not happen and is not something that is going to happen in our future. But what does the passage mean if it was predicting something to happen in 70 AD? AI: “Many biblical theologians argue that the Apostle Paul intentionally structured this passage around the ancient Greco-Roman custom of an imperial adventus or parousia (a royal visit). In the ancient world, when a king, emperor, or high-ranking dignitary approached a city, the citizens would not just wait inside. Instead, they would march outside the city walls to meet (eis apantēsin) the dignitary. Once they met him, they would form an honor guard and joyfully escort him back into the city. Rather than the believers turning around and going back up to heaven with the King (the rapture idea), the royal protocol suggests they turn around and escort Him victoriously down to earth.” I think that explains how 1 Thess 4:13-18 is referring to the 2nd coming in 70 AD and how it is consistent with an AD 70 2nd coming in 2 Thessalonians 1-2. After all, the 2nd coming in 70 AD would usher in God and Jesus coming to earth to abide in God’s church. Revelation 21:² And I saw the holy city, new Jerusalem, coming down out of heaven from God, prepared as a bride adorned for her husband. ³ And I heard a loud voice from the throne, saying, “Behold, the tabernacle of God is among the people, and He will dwell among them, and they shall be His people, and God Himself will be among them. John 14:³ And if I go and prepare a place for you, I am coming again and will take you to Myself, so that where I am, there you also will be. ²³ Jesus answered and said to him, “If anyone loves Me, he will follow My word; and My Father will love him, and We will come to him and make Our dwelling with him.” Many think that John 14:2 “I am going there to prepare a place for you” refers to heaven, but the context shows that it is referring to the dwelling place of God and Jesus in believers here on earth, not in heaven. That indwellling of God in believers was finalized in 70 AD.

4) MESSIANIC PROPHECIES Another consideration deals specifically withe the many Messianic prophecies in the OT. There are two type of prophecy fulfillments. One is “predictive prophecy”, i.e predictions that predict one and only one event with only one fulfillment to be fulfilled by the Messiah. Micah 5:2 would be an example of that predicting that Jesus would be born in Bethlehem. That was used by Herod to ascertain where the new king of the Jews would be born. That prophecy had one and only one fulfillment. Many OT Messianic predictions are like that: the predictions about the death, burial and resurrection of Jesus in Isaiah 53, the predictions in Zechariah 9 and 12 about him riding into Jerusalem on a donkey and being pierced. These one time only fulfillments would be used to confirm that Jesus was the real Messiah and King of the Jews as predicted in the OT. These are what Paul used in Acts 17:1-3 in the synagogue to try to show the Jews that Jesus fulfilled all those predictions and was thus the Messiah. But even those predictions had some figurative language in them. For example, Ezekiel 34:23-24 predicted that in the Messianic Age God would place David as the shepherd of his flock. Ezekiel 37:24-25; Jeremiah 23:5-6 predicted that in the Messianic Age David would be king over Israel. But remember the Luke 21:22 rule: everything predicted in the OT had to be fulfilled by 70 AD. The unbelieving Jews still expect David to actually arise from the dead and be a shepherd and king of Israel some day, but it is pretty obvious that Jesus is the fulfillment of the Davidic predictions in Jeremiah and Ezekiel. So David is figurative for Jesus. Similar to that is Malachi 4:5 that Elijsh would come before the great and terrible day of the Lord (which was 70 AD). In Matthew 17 Jesus clearly said that the fulfillment of that prediction was in John the Baptist, so that is figurative language although unbelieving Jews still look for Elijah to arise from the dead and come sit at table with them during the Passover feast.

THE RETURN OF ISRAEL TO THEIR LAND Another such OT predictive prophecy passage that has some figurative language is the one mentioned earlier about Israel being restored to living in the Promised Land of Palestine. Ezekiel 36-37 and Amos 9:14-15 predicted that Israel’s fortunes would be restored and that they would be allowed to return to the Promised Land, never to be uprooted from the land ever again. But the Luke 21:22 rule says these predictions had to be fulfilled by 70 AD. Israel did not literally return to Palestine by 70 AD; instead they were scattered and driven away from Jerusalem. But we do believe that those predictions were fulfilled by 70 AD, but were fulfilled figuratively and not literally. They were not fulfilled in 1948 as many teach as that would violate Luke 21:22. Also those promises were only made to the remnant of believing Jews who would accept Jesus as the Messiah, and not to the whole unbelieving nation, which is Paul’s argument in Romans 9:1-4. He said that God fulfilled all His OT promises to Israel but the promises were only made to the remnant and not to the whole nation, most of whom did not believe in Jesus. So how was spiritual Israel’s fortunes restored and how did they return to the land? Figuratively. The believing remnant were given spiritual fortunes of eternal life and they were placed in the eternal safety of the hands of God, which would be the land return fulfillment. John 10:²⁶ But you do not believe, because you are not of My sheep. ²⁷ My sheep listen to My voice, and I know them, and they follow Me; ²⁸ and I give them eternal life, and they will never perish; and no one will snatch them out of My hand. ²⁹ My Father, who has given them to Me, is greater than all; and no one is able to snatch them out of the Father’s hand. ³⁰ I and the Father are one.”

DAVID WILL BE KING Another such OT predictive passage that has some figurative language is Jeremiah 33:17-18 “For this is what the Lord says: ‘David will never fail to have a man to sit on the throne of Israel, nor will the Levitical priests ever fail to have a man to stand before me to offer burnt offerings, to burn grain offerings and to present sacrifices continually'”. This would occur in the Messianic Age. The Luke 21:22 rule says that had to be fulfilled by 70 AD. It also predicted offering animal burnt offerings which the book of Hebrews clearly said would be done away with by 70 AD to be replaced with the offering of the body and blood of Jesus. So if Jeremiah 33:17-18 was to be fulfilled literally with Levites and burnt offerings, that would be a total contradiction and would take away from the high priesthood of Jesus and the offering of his body. So it must be figurative of the eternal high priesthood of Jesus and that the offering of his body was “once for all tiime”, continuing to. cleanse sinners forever (Hebrews 9-10). Even those who say that Jesus will return in our future do not say that Jeremiah 33:17-18 will be fulfilled literally.

ISAIAH 65-66 AND 2 PETER 3. Another such OT predictive passage that has figurative language is Isaiah 65:17-25 and 66:18-24 predictions of a new Jerusalem and a new heavens and new earth. Again, the Luke 21:22 rule says this had to be fulfilled by 70 AD and it was. The New Jerusalem established in the New Testament was the church. AI: “In the Book of Revelation 21, the New Jerusalem is described as a city “prepared as a bride adorned for her husband”. Because the New Testament identifies believers and the Church as the Bride of Christ, the city symbolizes the people of God united with Him eternally. Also in the Book of Hebrews, the Apostle Paul refers to the corporate community of believers as the “city of the living God, the heavenly Jerusalem”. 2 Peter 3 is is the predicted fulfillment of the destruction of the old heaveans and earth (the Jewish system) and replacement with the new heavens and earth (the Messianic church system) in 70 AD. 2 Peter 3:¹³ But according to His promise we are looking for new heavens and a new earth, in which righteousness dwells.” Where was that promise found? Isaiah 65 and 66. If it was a promise written in the OT, then Luke 21:22 said that it had to be fulfilled by 70 AD, and it was. Many Bible scholars have said that 2 Peter 3 is not talking about a literal destruction of the old heavens and earth. Some of the confusion is 2 Peter 3:¹² looking for and hastening the coming of the day of God, because of which the heavens will be destroyed by burning, and the elements will melt with intense heat!” What are the “elements” of the old heavens and earth that would be burned up? Is that the elements like oxygen, nitrogen, hydrogen, etc. that make up the earth? The Greek word for “elements” is stoicheion: Element, principle, rudiment. In the New Testament it never is used to refer to the earth elements. It is used 5 times in addition to 2 Peter 3:10,12. All 5 tiimes it refers to the elemental teachings of the world or of. Judaism (Galatians 4:3; 4:9; Colossians 2:8,20; Hebrews 5:12). It refers to the elemental teachings of Judaism in 2 Peter that would be destrooyed and removed in 70 AD (Hebrews 8:13, written in 60 AD, said that the law was about to disappear in 70 AD). Again, a lot of figurative language but understandable.

ANALOGY PROPHECIES Another type of fulfillment besides “predictive” prophecy is simply analogies. In Matthew 15 Jesus said that Isiah predicted the hardness of the hearts of the Jews Jesus was teaching and quoted Isiah 29:13. That prediction is not a one and only one time prediction about the evil Jews such as Micah 5:2. It is simply an analogy. The Jews in Isaiah’s tiime were evil just liked the Jews in Jesus’ time, so you could say that Isaiah’ prediction was being fulfilled in Jesus’ time. These analogies were never meant to be used to identify the Messiah.

5) FIGURATIVE LANGUAGE IN THE OLD TESTAMENT. Those are 4 guidelines to interpreting prophecies to be literal or figurative. There are several common sense interpretation of figurative language through out the Old Testament. There are several categories of obvious figurative language just as in our English language studies. AI: “Figurative language is woven throughout the entire Old Testament. While found in historical narratives, it is heavily concentrated in three primary literary genres: Poetic Literature (the Psalms, Song of Solomon), Wisdom Literature (Proverbs, Ecclesiastes), and Prophetic Literature (Isaiah, Jeremiah, Ezekiel). Specific types of figurative language appear across these sections in various forms: Metaphors and Similes: Example: “The Lord is my rock, my fortress and my deliverer…” (Psalm 18:2). Example: “He shall mount up with wings like eagles…” (Isaiah 40:31). Personification (Giving non-human things human traits): Frequently used in the Book of Proverbs to describe abstract concepts. Example: “Wisdom cries aloud in the street, she raises her voice in the markets” (Proverbs 1:20). Anthropomorphism (Giving human traits to God): Used throughout the Old Testament to help humans understand a transcendent deity. Example: “The eyes of the Lord range throughout the earth…” (2 Chronicles 16:9). Hyperbole (Deliberate Exaggeration): Found in poetic war songs and lamentations to emphasize intensityExample: “They were swifter than eagles, they were stronger than lions” (2 Samuel 1:23).

6) SHADOWS AND TYPES Shadows and types in the Bible are considered to be figurative language, called typology. AI: “A type is an actual person, event, or institution in the Old Testament that acts as a “pre-echo” or prophetic picture of a greater reality in the New Testament. A shadow (from the Greek word skia) refers to an imperfect, insubstantial outline of a future reality.

• The Shadow vs. The Substance: The New Testament uses shadow imagery to show that Old Testament practices (like dietary laws, Sabbath days, or the Levitical priesthood) were merely the outline. The “substance” or reality (soma) is Christ. This is famously outlined in Colossians 2:16-17.
• The Type and Antitype: A type (like the Old Testament Passover lamb) points forward to the “antitype” or fulfillment (Jesus Christ, the ultimate sacrifice). For example, Romans 5:14 identifies Adam as a “type” (typos) of the one who was to come, Jesus.
• Hebrews as a Primary Source: The Book of Hebrews relies heavily on this figurative language. It describes the earthly tabernacle and its rituals as “copies and shadows of what is in heaven” (e.g., Hebrews 8:5 and Hebrews 10:1).

In biblical interpretation, while these are figurative models, they are believed to represent real historical events or objects that God specifically designed to point toward Christ

7) REVELATION IS FULL OF FIGURATIVE LANGUAGE The book of Revelation is full of figurative language. [But why describe the predicted events in such figurative language?Won’t that make it harder to understand? Why so much figurative language? John wrote about real events that would happen soon, but in figurative language. In 13:18 he talks about the mark of the beast, 666 (using a numbers for letters system perhaps), but he says that those readers with insight could calculate exactly who he was talking about, probably Nero. John would not want to name Nero. 

• Symbolic numbers in Revelation.
• Other times, the numbers are symbolic, such as 4 (the earth number, the 4 directions, the 4 living creatures of ch 4 who execute God’s wrath on earth); or 7 (the complete number, the 7 churches, stars, Spirits, seals, angels, plagues, bowls of wrath, heads),, or 10 (10. Horns, 10 kings), or 12 (12 gates, pearls, foundations, apostles of the church in ch 22).

Big symbolic numbers. The 1,000 year reign of Revelation 20. 

• Some bigger numbers are multiples of these symbolic numbers. 1,000 is 10X10X10. 
• The 1,000 years in ch 20 has been used to teach a 1,000 year reign of Christ on earth when he returns, but it only refers to the 40 year period from Acts 2 (30 AD) to the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD. 
• Why do I say that? 22:7,8 says that at the end of the 1,000 years that Gog and Magog (as predicted in Ezekiel 38-39) will surround the “beloved city” which has to be Jerusalem. If this is an event soon to take place based on Rev 1:1-3 and Rev 21:4-7, then this has to be the Romans (God and Magog) surrounding Jerusalem in 70 AD. 
• There is a 200 million man army (Rev 9:16) attacking (200X10^6), which is Rome. Surely a figurative number.
• There is the 144,000 who are sealed for protection (Rev 7, 14). There are the 12,000 of ch 7 (12X1000). Figurative numbers although the JW’s took the 144,000 to be a literal number of faithful members, the only ones to go to heaven. The rest, the “great multitude of every nation in Ch 7, will live on earth in paradise forever. All JW members of course.

Symbolic animals. 

• Other figures like the sea beast of ch 13 are taken from OT predictions (Daniel 7 names the next 4 kingdoms: Babylon, Medo-Persia, Greeks, Romans) using lion, leopard, and bear, the same figures used to describe the sea beast Rome in ch 13 (the iron beast in Daniel 2,7). Rev 13:² And the beast that I saw was like a leopard, and his feet were like those of a bear, and his mouth like the mouth of a lion.”
• There is also an earth beast which is the Jewish false prophets. 
• The dragon in ch 12 and ch 20, which John tells us is Satan. 
• The 4 living creatures in ch 4 (the same figure in Ezekiel 1). 
• The 4 horsemen of ch 6 which represent conquest, war, famine, and death. This is taken from Zechariah 6.

Apparently the Holy Spirit just wanted to describe these imminent events more powerfully than just literal language, the same way we use “it’s raining cats and dogs” to describe heavy rain. 

I’m sure I missed something but I hope this is helpful for those who are digging deeper into Bible study. I truly believe that the Bible is basically undersstandable. I don’t believe there are any predictions, OT or NT, that are to be fulfilled in our future. That should give us comfort when we hear the false teachers misusing scripture.