(AI) “Preterism is a Christian belief that some or all of the Bible’s prophecies have already happened in history. The word comes from the Latin word praeter, which means “past” or “beyond”.” Most Bible scholars are “partial preterists” b/c they beleve many Bible prophecies have already happened. Some even believe that many of the new testament prophecies were fulfilled at the 70 AD destruction of the temple and of Jerusalem (prophecies that are often said to have not happened yet as of today). Few are “full preterists” who say that all the Bible prophecies have already happened, including the 2nd coming, the resurrection of the dead, the 70th week of Daniel, the new heavens and earth, the new Jerusalem, etc. This article: what factors would make someone move from partial preterism to full preterism?

1. Jesus predicts that his 2nd coming would be within the lifetime of those he was speaking to. There are only 4 times in the synoptics where he predicts a 2nd coming or coming again: Matthew 10:23; 16:27,28; 24:30-34; 26:64. (My blog article “the 2nd coming of Jesus”). That either happened as Jesus predicted in the next 40 years after he predicted it (the word genea in Matthew 24:34 always means a 40 year period or tehe people living in a 40 year period in the NT), or else Jesus: 1) is a false prophet, or 2) he was mistaken (as C.S.Lewis claimed) which would make him a false prophet, or 3) he did predict an imminent 2nd coming but “delayed it” (Hebrews 10:37 refutes any delay theories: “³⁷ for yet a very very little, He who is coming will come, and will not tarry”). Matthew 16:27-28 and Mark 8:38-9:1 is a key point. Some of those he was speaking to would still be alive at his 2nd coming. Matthew 16:28 ²⁸ Verily I say to you, there are certain of those standing here who shall not taste of death till they may see the Son of Man coming in his reign.'” Matthew 16:27 even uses the word mello (which always means “about to”) “For the Son of Man is “about to come” (usually translated incorrectly as “will come” except in Young’s Literal Translation). Some say the was predicting the Mount of Transfiguration that would happen soon after in Mt 17, but notice that these 2 parallel passages are both “coming in judgement” passages (“and then he will repay each person according to what he has done”). There was no judgment on the Mount of Transfiguration. Jesus’ coming in judgment ( 2nd coming) in 70 AD to judge the evil Jews who rejected him as the Messiah fulfills Jesus’ predictions of an imminent 2nd coming. Those predictions involve some figurative language such as the “stars falling” (Matthew 24:29) which can easily be seen to have a figurative not literal fulfillment based on OT predictions that use the same language to describe the destruction of Babylon, for example (Isaiah 13).
2. I challenge you to find a verse in the gospels where Jesus predicts a “coming back” that is not to be fulfilled in the lifetime of those he is speaking to. Don’t you think that there would be a verse that did that? So why am I a “heretic” for defending Jesus’ credibility as a prophet just b/c I believe that what he predicted came true exactly as he predicted? I would never make full preterism a heaven or hell issue, just as I would not make any eschatological beliefs a heaven or hell issue (such as premillennialism or postmillennialism). But I just don’t understand why some would say I am a heretic for believing that Jesus’ predictions came true exactly as he predicted. The 3 options above if his predictions did not come true as predicted are just not acceptable. Some full preterists claim that it is heresy not to believe that the 2nd coming was in 70 AD but I don’t take that position although I think there is a lot at stake here. Unbelieving Jews, atheists, and Muslims all claim that Jesus is a false prophet b/c they say his predictions did not come true as predicted, and you can see why they would say that if indeed his predictions did not come true as predicted.
3. Believing that the resurrection of the dead occurred at 70 AD is one of the hardest hurdles to overcome in moving from partial to full preterism. But here are some points to consider. Acts 24:¹⁴ `And I confess this to thee, that, according to the way that they call a sect, so serve I the God of the fathers, believing all things that in the law and the prophets have been written,¹⁵ having hope toward God, which they themselves also wait for, [that] there is about to be a rising again of the dead, both of righteous and unrighteous” (YLT). Paul is saying 2 things: 1) the resurrection of the dead was “about to” (mello) happen, and 2) the Law and Prophets predicted this resurrection that was about to happen. So where did the prophets predict a resurrection of the righteous and unrighteous? Daniel 12:² And many of those who sleep in the dust of the ground will awake, these to everlasting life, but the others to disgrace and everlasting contempt. That is the only place in the OT that predicts this resurrection. And yet Paul says it is “about to happen”. So is Paul mistaken (which is untenable since it would make him not inspired and how would we know which of his writings are inspired and which are not?. Is Paul just another false prophet who thinks the 2nd coming and resurrection are imminent but is wrong? The whole chapter 12 in Daniel is about the “end time” , “the end”, the “tribulation of the Jewish nation” (which Jesus spoke of in Mt 24, a tribulation that had to occur within that generation Matthew 24:34), and the “abomination of desolation” (the destruction and desecration of the temple). Jesus said in Matthew 24:15 that the abomination of desolation as predicted by Daniel would be fulfilled within the lifetime of the generation living when he was saying this (Matthew 24:34 the word genea in the NT always refers to a 40 year period or the people living in a 40 year period). So Daniel 12:2 is also referring to a resurrection of the dead at the end of the age in 70 AD. Paul said that resurrection was about to happen. All the dead in the OT went to Hades to await their resurrection and final judgment of eternal life or eternal destruction in 70 AD. In 70 AD they were raised, not bodily to be seen, but spiritually just as Paul predicted. I believe that happened just as Paul predicted, or else Paul is a false prophet. Paul gives further detail on this resurrection in 1 Corinthians 15. He says that some of those he is writing to would still be alive at the resurrection. 15:⁵¹ Behold, I am telling you a mystery; we will not all sleep, but we will all be changed.” He says that the believers, whether dead or alive at the resurrection (the Daniel 12:2 resurrection) will be given “immortality”. 15:⁵³ For this perishable must put on the imperishable, and this mortal must put on immortality. ⁵⁴ But when this perishable puts on the imperishable, and this mortal puts on immortality, then will come about the saying that is written: “Death has been swallowed up in victory.” Is Paul mistaken about this prediction also? This resurrection to immortality occurred within their lifetime in 70 AD. All believers since that date receive immortality when they believe (they can lose it if they fall from grace) and as Jesus said in John 11, “they will live even if they die (physically)”. So the belief that the resurrection of the dead occurred at 70 AD is not only Biblical, but is not a big hurdle in going from partial to full preterism.
4.  The other NT writers and apostles also predicted an imminent 2nd coming. James 5:⁸ You too be patient; strengthen your hearts, for the coming of the Lord is near.” Is James a false prophet? 1 Peter 4:⁵ who shall give an account to Him who is ready (hetoimós: Ready, prepared) to judge living and dead… ⁷ The end of all things is near (eggizó: To draw near, to approach, to come near: same word as used in Mark 14:42 he who betrays me is “at hand”).” Is Peter the apostle a false prophet? What about the apostle John? He said that the events predicted in the book of Revelation were to take place “soon” (1:1), “the time is near (eggus: Near, close, at hand)” (1:3), “soon take place” (22:6), “the time is near” (22:10). The book is about the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD, a follow up of all that Jesus predicted in Mt 24, Mk 13, and Lk 21. But it is also about the 2nd coming: Rev 1:⁷ Behold, He is coming with the clouds, and every eye will see Him, even those who pierced Him; and all the tribes of the earth will mourn over Him. So it is to be. Amen.” John says repeated that Jesus said “I am coming quickly” (2:16; 3:11; 22:12,20)”. Some say that just means “swiftly” but it obviously means “soon” since the events were “about to happen” (mello which always means “about to happen” in the NT) (1:19; 2:10; 3:10,16; 6:11; 8:13; 12:5). So is John the apostle a false prophet also? Let’s throw in another prediction by Paul here. 2 Timothy 4:1I do fully testify, then, before God, and the Lord Jesus Christ, who is about to (mello) judge living and dead at his manifestation and his reign (YLT).” This fits an AD 70 judgment also.
5. The book of Hebrews also predicts the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD and the 2nd coming. Hebrews 9:²⁸ so Christ also, having been offered once to bear the sins of many, will appear a second time for salvation without reference to sin, to those who eagerly await Him.” But when would this 2nd appearing or coming happen? Hebrews 10:³⁷ For yet in a very little while,
   He who is coming will come, and will not delay.” That 2nd appearing or coming would be in a very little while. That can only refer to his 2nd coming in 70 AD or else the writer of the Hebrew letter is a false prophet. The letter also predicts that the old covenant is “about to disappear” (8:13), which would fit 70 AD when the temple was destroyed, no more animal sacrifices since then, no more priests, and replaced with the new covenant. The book was definitely written before 70 AD: Hebrews 9:⁸ The Holy Spirit is signifying this, that the way into the holy place has not yet been disclosed while the outer tabernacle is still standing.” The verb “is” indicates that the temple “is” still standing at the time the letter was written. It would be destroyed in 70 AD. Unfortunately a lot of the translations have “was still standing” which is not the accurate verb tense in Greek. Hebrews 6:5 predicts the new age (i.e. the Messianic Age) that is “about to come” (mello). Hebrews 13:14 predicts a city (i.e. the new Jerusalem) that is “about to come” (mello). We don’t know who wrote the Hebrew letter, but whoever wrote it (and Paul did not write it) did so before 70 AD and his/her predictions would come true in 70 AD. He/she was truly inspired by the Holy Spirit.
6. We must discuss 2 Thessalonians as a separate point since it is mainly about the 2nd coming. Chapter 1 says that Jesus will be revealed from heaven (i.e. the 2nd coming) to give relief to the Thessalonian Christians who are being afflicted or persecuted. Paul had said in 1 Thess 2:14 that they were being persecuted by their Jewish non believing countrymen but “wrath has come upon them (i.e. the Jewish unbelievers who were killed in 70 AD) fully.” (2:17). The main persecutors and killers of the Jewish Christians during the transition period from AD 30-70 were the Jewish unbelievers like Saul. Jesus’ 2nd coming in 70 AD would have the Romans killing a million evil Jews who rejected Jesus as the Messiah, so 2 Thess 1 certainly fits that context of giving the believers relief. It is always important that we. understand “audience relevance”, i.e. how does a passage relate to the audience it was written to. But some were saying that the 2nd coming “had already come” (2 Thess 2:2). Paul then goes on to say that before the 2nd coming there would be an “apostasy” (which could be a falling away of believers or it could be the Jewish revolt in years preceding 70 AD), and a “man of sin” would come with lying signs and wonders. This man of sin would claim to be god and would sit in God’s temple. This can only refer to Titus. Once the temple is destroyed in 70 AD, there is no temple for the man of sin to sit in, which eliminates all the many predictions of who the man of sin is (such as the papacy, some future Antichrist). Some person was holding that man of sin back at the time of writing, but 2 Thess 2:⁷ For the mystery of lawlessness is already at work; only He who now restrains will do so until He is removed. ⁸ Then that lawless one will be revealed, whom the Lord will eliminate with the breath of His mouth and bring to an end by the appearance of His coming.” These verses tell us that this process was already at work at the time of writing. The man of sin was living at the time of writing. The man of sin (living at that time) would be judged at Jesus’ coming or appearing, which means the 2nd coming would have to be within the lifetime of those Paul is writing to.” Again, is Paul inspired? Did these things happen within the lifetime of those he was writing to or is he a false prophet? Paul had already spoken of the 2nd coming in the first letter to the Thessalonians: 1 Thess 1:10; 2:19; 3:13; 5:2. Would that no be the same 2nd coming that he gave further discussion on in 2 Thessalonians? I think so! So those verses in 1 Thess are talking about the 2nd coming within their lifetime, in 70 AD. That brings us to another somewhat of a hurdle to full preterism in 1 Thess 4:13-18. The early Christians in the transition period from 30-70 AD all expected Jesus’ 2nd coming to be imminent, in their lifetime. Why would they think that? As James Stuart Russell said, “because Jesus and the apostles told them it would be imminent in their lifetime!” So they were concerned when a few of their loved ones also believers, died before the 2nd coming (70 AD), that they would not be alive to receive and immortality at the 2nd coming. Paul says, “don’t worry about them. Jesus will bring them with him when he comes (1 Thess 4:14). Apparently during this transition period the dead believers (and martyrs) would go directly to be with Jesus when they died. They would not go to hades like all the dead in the OT. Revelation 20:4 speaks of this “first resurrection” of those martyred during the transition period as occurring at the beginning of the 100 year reign of Christ. The “rest of the dead”, i.e. the dead of the OT who were waiting in hades for their resurrection in 70 AD at the end of the age (Daniel 12:2; Acts 24:15), would not be raised till the end of the 1000 years which would be in 70 AD. At the end of the 1000 years, Gog and Magog (Rome) would “surround the beloved city (i.e. Jeruslem), so if that is something that has to happen “soon” or “shortly” then the end of the 1000 years would be the Romans sieging and detroying the city of Jerusalem. That means that the 1000 years is a figurative number (as often done in Revelation) and is the 40 years from AD 30 to AD 70. That destroys the theories about Christ coming in our future to set up a 1000 year reign on earth (the millennium) that many preach about today. BTW Jesus said that his kingdom was “not of this earth” (John 18:36); his kingdom that was “at hand” when he spoke (Mark 1:15) was the spiritul kingdom, the church, that began in 30 AD. Back to 1 Thess 4. Paul goes on to say that those already dead in Christ (those Jesus is bringing with him) will join those still alive to meet Jesus when he comes. Those alive would be caught up together with those dead to meet Jesus when he comes and “will always be with the Lord” (4:17). Some say this is the “rapture” of saints before or at the 2nd coming. Is this not the same 2nd coming as in 2 Thessalonians, which would be in 70 AD? If so, then this is not a prediction of some rapture of saints that will occur in our future at some future 2nd coming of Jesus. It is simply a reference to a common practice of that day. If a dignitary or king came to visit a city, the residents of the city would go out to meet the king and then the king would go with them into the city to be with them in person. Paul is saying that those living would figuratively meet Jesus as He came to earth in His 2nd coming, after which Jesus would go with them and abide with them in their presence. He is not taking anyone back to heaven. He is coming to make His presence with the believers on earth in the church. From the 2nd coming in 70 AD on Jesus has dwelt by faith in believers in the new Jerusalem, i.e. the church (Rev 21:1-4). But the main point here is that 1 Thess 4:13-18 must be talking about the same 2nd coming as in 2 Thess, which would be in their lifetime, in 70 AD. So forget all the rapture ideas that you here. We believers have already been caught up with Jesus’ presence in the church.
7. In closing, I hope this will be helpful for someone who is a partial preterist but is contemplating becoming a full preterist. If you do become a full preterist, you are not going to be a heretic, at least in my estimation even if some would consider that to be heresy. You must be willing to go where the Scriptures lead you even if it goes against 2,000 years of church orthodoxy and doctrine. I am more interested in what the Bible says than what people say that it says.
8. If you just don’t want to consider all this as worth studying, that’s fine. It is not a heaven or hell issue (no eschatological theory is a heaven or hell issue). Just keep trusting in Jesus for eternal life and doing good works to glorify God. That is what really matters, not eschatology. But some of us, like I, must study and teach about this issue in light of all the false teaching that is currently being taught. Thanks for reading and I hope this article has been helpful to some.