I do believe that all 27 New Testament books were written before 70 AD. Here is my analysis.
THE GOSPELS: Many claim that the gospels were: 1) Not written by Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John. 2) Were written late first century after those 4 men died. This teaching has caused many to leave their faith in the Bible, especially the New Testament. If the gospels were written decades after these 4 inspired men died, then they have no authority on doctrines and teaching for us today. We don’t have the gospels originals or even copies before the year 100 AD. The oldest manuscript of the New Testament has been the John Rylands’ Fragment P52, a small fragment (John 18:31-33, 37-38) from John’s Gospel, dated to the first half of the second century. Manuscript P66 part of the Bodmer Papyri, is a crucial, early 3rd-century (c. 175–225 AD) Greek manuscript containing a significant, nearly complete portion of the Gospel of John. So what is the one main proof that the gospels were written before 70 AD and written by those 4 authors? Here is my take. The synoptic gospels (Mt, Mk, and Lk) all record Jesus’ prediction of the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD (Mt 24, Mk 13, and Lk 21). None of the 3 state that event had already happened at the time of writing of each gospel. If the gospels were written decades after 70 AD, then surely each gospel would say that the 70 AD predictions of Jesus had already happened, confirming that Jesus was a true prophet. Matthew directly states that prophecies were fulfilled or uses “fulfillment citations” approximately 11 to 13 times in his Gospel to establish Jesus as the Messiah, often using the formula, “This occurred in order to fulfill what was spoken of by the prophet”. Surely Matthew would have done the same with Jesus’ 70 AD predictions if they had already been fulfilled when he wrote his gospel. Why is it so important that we show that the gospels were written before 70 AD? 1) It tells us that the 4 authors were either eyewitnesses (the apostles Matthew and John), or were associated with an eyewitness (according to Papias of Hierapolis (c. 60–130 AD) Mark based his gospel on the recollections of the apostle Peter) or used eyewitness testimony to gather his material (Luke 1:1-4). That gives much more credibility to the gospels than if they were written anonymously in the late 1st century by writers who did not witness Jesus’ miracles and resurrection. 2) If the gospels were written around 50-60 AD, that is only 20-30 years after Jesus’ miracles and resurrection. That would have given opportunity for people to question or reject the anthenticity of these gospels. They would have known if Mt, Mk, Lk, and John really wrote the gospels. The early church fathers (100-325 AD) cite the gospels over 19,300 times. That shows that accepted the 4 gospels as authentic. They never quote or cite the gnostic gospels like the Gospel of Thomas, or Gospel of Judas, or Gospel of Philip, or Gospel of Mary Magdelene. Writing around 185 CE in Adversus Haereses, Irenaeus of Lyons established that there are exactly four canonical Gospels (Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John) — no more, no less — calling them the four pillars of the Church.
PAUL’S WRITINGS (13 LETTERS): Paul died from 64-67 AD, beheaded by the cruel emperor Nero. That obviously means that he wrote all his letters before 70 AD. He also predicted the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD. 1 Thessalonians 2:15-16: Paul writes that those who killed Jesus and the prophets are “filling up the measure of their sins” and that “wrath has come upon them at last”. This is interpreted as a reference to the impending judgment of 70 AD. In 2 Thessalonians 2 he predicts that the man of sin would arise and do false miracles before the 2nd coming of Jesus. He said that the man of sin would sit in the temple and claim to be God. He said that “mystery” was “already at work” at the time he wrote. That means that the man of sin had to be living when he wrote 2 Thess. That man of sin would have to be the emperor Titus who did enter the temple, claiming to be god, and who destroyed the temple in 70 AD. Obviously, that means that 2 Thess was written before 70 AD. In 1 Corinthians 15 Pau is predicting the resurrection in which believers, dead or alive, would be given immortality. Paul then stated that some of those he was writing to in Corinth would still be alive when that resurrection occurred: 15:51 Behold, I am telling you a mystery; we will not all sleep, but we will all be changed.” That resurrection was the resurrection predicted in Daniel 12:2 to happen at the end of the Jewish Age in 70 AD. It was the one that Paul said was “about to happen” in Acts 24:15. “While the early Church Fathers (Apostolic Fathers and later Ante-Nicene Fathers) did not quote every single verse from Paul’s letters immediately, they collectively quoted or alluded to all 13 epistles attributed to him in the New Testament over the 2nd and 3rd centuries. Major Pauline letters like Romans, 1 Corinthians, and Ephesians were quoted frequently, while minor letters were cited less often but still recognized, strengthening the evidence for the Pauline canon.” Bart Ehrman says that Paul only wrote 7 of the letters attributed to him, but I think that I will trust the early church fathers that he wrote all of his letters more than I trust Ehrman’s liberal teaching.
PETER’S WRITINGS (1,2 PETER): Peter, like Paul, also died from 64-67 AD, crucified upside down according to tradition, at the hands of Nero. Obviously that means his writings had to be written before 70 AD. Early church fathers quoted or cited 1 Peter frequently, but 2 Peter was rarely cited and often disputed until the 3rd or 4th century. 1 Peter was accepted early, cited by Polycarp (c. 130) and Irenaeus. 2 Peter is generally absent in early, undisputed writing, with its first clear mentions appearing in Origen (c. 250) and Eusebius (c. 325). It was disputed due to style differences from 1 Peter, repetition of Jude in chapter 2 (did Peter copy Jude or did Jude copy Peter or neither), and questions about who wrote it. But eventually it was accepted. I wonder if 2 Peter 3 predicting the destruction of the old heavens and earth to be replace with a new heavens and earth didn’t cause many to question the authenticity of 2 Peter. If you were a chiliast and expected Jesus to return soon back then to establish an earthly kingdom and it didn’t happen like you thought it would, then even 2nd century church fathers might have been reluctant to cite 2 Peter. Of course, if you believe that 2 Peter 3 is predicting the destruction of the old Jewish system and replacing it with the new Messianic system in 70 AD, then 2 Peter actually proves that it was authentic b/c he is predicting an event that happened in 70 AD just a few years after he wrote 2 Peter. That makes sense also since 1 Peter 4 predicted 7 The end of all things is near.” The end of all things had to happen soon or else Peter is a false prophet. 2 Peter 3 is predicting the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD, which was indeed “near”. The “end of all things” would surely include the end of the old heavens and earth, and that had to be “near” in 2 Peter 3 since the end of “all things” was near. So 2 Peter 3 is not talking about the physical destruction of the earth to be replaced with a newly re-created earth, which is what many teach. 2 Peter 3 had to be predicting something that was going to happen soon, and the destruction of the earth did not happen soon. BTW, the Greek word for the “elements” in 2 Peter 3 that were predicted to be burned never refers to the physical elements of the universe, like hydrogen, oxygen, etc. It is used 7 times and always refer to the basic rudimentary principles of the Law of the Jews or of pagan law. So we do conclude that Peter’s writings, including 2 Peter, were written before 70 AD.
James (the Lord’s brother): We don’t know when James died, but Josephus says he died in 62 AD. If so, his letter was written before 70 AD. But internal evidence shows that it was written before 70 AD. James 5:1 Come now, you rich people, weep and howl for your miseries which are coming upon you. 2 Your riches have rotted and your garments have become moth-eaten. 3 Your gold and your silver have corroded, and their corrosion will serve as a testimony against you and will consume your flesh like fire. It is in the last days that you have stored up your treasure!” That was written to scattered Jewish Christians who were oppressing the poor. That “last days” are the last days of the Jewish Age which ended in 70 AD. The miseries coming upon them would be the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD during which one million evil Jews suffered and died. James 5:8 You too be patient; strengthen your hearts, for the coming of the Lord is near.” There is only one predicted 2nd coming in the gospels and the letters, and it had to happen within that generation of Jews. It did happen in 70 AD. So this coming of the Lord in James 5:8 would be the 2nd coming in 70 AD. So the letter of James was written before 70 AD.
Jude (the Lord’s brother): the Book of Jude was cited, used, and recognized as canonical by several early Church Fathers despite being considered a “disputed” book by some. Despite that it quoted the book of Enoch and the Assumption of Moses (two apocryphal books not accepted into the NT canon). It was accepted by prominent leaders such as Clement of Alexandria, Tertullian, and Origen, and included in the early Muratorian Canon. (180-200 AD). It appears in the third-century Bodmer Papyrus (p72) (dated 3rd and 4th centuries) alongside 1 & 2 Peter, indicating it was part of the early “General Epistles” collection. The only indication that it was written before 70 AD is Jude 17 But you, beloved, ought to remember the words that were spoken beforehand by the apostles of our Lord Jesus Christ, 18 that they were saying to you, “In the last time there will be mockers, following after their own ungodly lusts.” That has to be synonymous with “the last days” which is 30-70 AD, the last days of the Jewish Age. If so, Jude must also have been written before 70 AD. One tradition says that he died around 65 AD.
John’s gospel, letters, and Revelation: The main reason we know all of John’s writings were written before 70 AD is that John was dead before 70 AD. Tradition says that he lived to the age of 100 in Ephesus and died a peaceful death. But that contradicts Jesus’ predictiong that the brother James and John would die a marty’s death. Mark 10:39 They said to Him, “We are able.” And Jesus said to them, “The cup that I drink you shall drink; and you shall be baptized with the baptism with which I am baptized.” The most plausible tradition regarding John’s death states that John was arrested in Ephesus and faced martyrdom when his enemies threw him in a huge basin of boiling oil. That tradition, arguing that he was not martyred but rescued, would contradict Jesus’ prediction. The early church father Papias (60-130 AD) said that John the theologian and James his brother were killed by Jews”. That could have only happened while the Jews had the ability to kill someone, which had to be before 70 AD. They would not have had that ability in the year 100 AD. Some dispute the what Papias said, but the fact remains that Jesus said they would be martyred and that martyrdom would have to be before 70 AD. James had already been martyred in Acts 12. John’s gospel says that the pool of Bethesda was still intact when he wrote his gospel: John 5:2 Now in Jerusalem, by the Sheep Gate, there is a pool which in Hebrew is called Bethesda, having five porticoes.” The present tense verb “is” is a comment by John that the pool was still intact when he wrote his gospel. That had to be before 70 AD b/c there would be no usable pool after 70 AD. Also John does not mention the destruction of the temple in 70 AD. Surely he would have done so if that had already happened at the time he wrote the gospel. So the gospel of John was written before 70 AD. His letters (1,2,3 John): early church fathers recognized and cited 1, 2, and 3 John, though 1 John was cited more frequently than the shorter 2 and 3 John. Key figures such as Irenaeus, Clement of Alexandria, Origen, and Eusebius cited these epistles and attributed them to the Apostle John. 1 John 2 says that it was the “last hour” at the time of writing. 1 John 2:18 Children, it is the last hour; and just as you heard that antichrist is coming, even now many antichrists have appeared; from this we know that it is the last hour.” The last hour of what? That has to be the last hour of the last days of the Jewish Age which ended in 70 AD. While the phrase may not mean the last 60 minutes before the end of the last days, it surely indicates a time very close to the end of the last days. It definitely indicates that 1 John was written before 70 AD. We assume that he wrote 1,2,3 John b/c he died and he died before 70 AD. Obviously Revelation would have to be written before 70 AD since John died before 70 AD. Many have said that, based on a statement by Irenaeus in 180 AD, Revelation was written in 96 AD in the reign of Domitian. But the internal evidence shows that Revelation was written during the reign of emperor Nero (54-68 AD) so it had to be written before 68 AD. Revelation 17:9 Here is the mind which has wisdom. The seven heads are seven mountains upon which the woman sits, 10 and they are seven kings; five have fallen, one is, the other has not yet come; and when he comes, he must remain a little while.” These kings are the kings or emperors of the sea beast Rome. Nero was the 6th king or emperor and living at the time John wrote Revelation (5 have fallen, died and one “is”). We start with Julius Caesar as the first of those 6 kings. In Antiquities book xvii second chapter, Josephus states that Augustus was the second Emperor. Two sentences later he states that Tiberius was the third. Josephus (37-100 AD) lived in the first century and surely would have known who everyone considered to be the first ruler of Rome. The Gentile historian Seutonius, in his book The Twelve Caesars in 121 AD, started his list of caesars with Julius, not Augustus. Also Revelation predicts the 2nd coming as a future yet to be fulfilled event at the time of writing (Revelation 22:7,12,20 Jesus says “I am coming quickly”. That had to be coming of Jesus that was soon after the time of writing of Revelation b/c Revelation 1 and 22 state that the predictions given in Revelation would “soon take place”, be “near”. So that coming had to be soon or near, and that could only fit Jesus’ coming in 70 AD to judge the Jews. That means Revelation was written before 70 AD. Also Revelation predicts the destruction of the “great city” in Revelation 17:15-18. That great city was “where our Lord was crucified” (Revelation 11:8) which means it is Jerusalem. So the book of Revelation makes a prediction of the destruction of Jerusalem as a future event at the time of writing, so the book had to be written before 70 AD. So all of John’s writings, including Revelation, were written before 70 AD.
Hebrews: If Paul wrote the letter, then Hebrews would have to be written before 68 AD when Paul was beheaded by Nero. The early church in the East thought Paul wrote it but the church in the West did not think he wrote it and disputed the authenticity of the book. I don’t believe that Paul wrote it. Paul never would have said that the salvation first spoken through the Lord “was confirmed to us by those who heard.” (Hebrews 2:3) In Galations 1 he argues that he got his gospel directly from Jesus and not from any humans or even the apostles. So if Paul wasn’t the author, how can we know that Hebrews was written before 70 AD. There are severa proofs that it was written before 70 AD. 1) The temple was still standing and priest ministering in the temple at the time of writing: Hebrews 9:6 Now when these things have been so prepared, the priests are continually entering the outer tabernacle, performing the divine worship, 7 but into the second, only the high priest enters once a year, not without taking blood which he offers for himself and for the sins of the people committed in ignorance. 8 The Holy Spirit is signifying this, that the way into the holy place has not yet been disclosed while the outer tabernacle is still standing.” These are present tense verbs: “priests are continually entering the tabernacle” and “the outer tabernacle is still standing”. Unfortunately the NIV translates those verbs as past tense, “was”. The priests are still ministering in the temple at the time of writing: Hebrews 10:11 Every priest stands daily ministering and offering time after time the same sacrifices, which can never take away sins (again, a present tense verb “stands”). The temple was destroyed in 70 AD, so this means that the letter was written before 70 AD. 2) Hebrews predicts a coming of Jesus that will be soon with no delay. Hebrews 10:37 For yet in a very little while; He who is coming will come, and will not delay.” That coming had to be Jesus coming soon in the judgment of the Jews in 70 AD. 3) Hebrews predicts an imminent judgment of the evil Jews. Hebrews 10:26 For we — willfully sinning after the receiving the full knowledge of the truth — no more for sins doth there remain a sacrifice, 27 but a certain fearful looking for of judgment, and fiery zeal, about to devour the opposers”. (Young’s Literal Translation). I cite YLT b/c it accurately translates the word “mello” as “about to” The word mello in the NT always means “about to”. So there was a judgment of the Jews that was “about to happen” at the time of writing, and that could only be the judgment of the Jews in 70 AD and the letter had to be written before that. For these 3 reasons we conclude that Hebrews was written before 70 AD regardless of whole wrote the letter. Whoever wrote it was inspired or he/she could not have made such accurate predictions.
My prayer is that someone who has questioned the authenticity of the NT books will read this article closely. This is a critical study b/c the implications are serious. I hope this helps.